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Code d'Examen: 199-01
Nom d'Examen: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional)
Questions et réponses: 342 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 301-01
Nom d'Examen: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate - Application Delivery)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Typically, the Stingray Traffic Manager (STM) is installed:
A. As a proxy
B. Inline and requires 3 interfaces
C. As a proxy and requires 2 interfaces
D. Must be installed as a cluster
E. Cannot be installed inline
Answer: A

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NO.2 When TCP communication is being established, what is the first thing that happens?
A. A three-way handshake is performed between the two IP nodes.
B. A ten-way handshake is performed between the two IP nodes.
C. The sending IP node can directly start sending data.
D. The receiving IP node sends an echo request
E. A one-way communication channel is established.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following are true about Default ('Safe Mode') Aptimizer settings?
A. In Safe Mode, CSS optimization are set at a high level while JavaScript and Image optimization are
left at a moderate level
B. Combine JavaScript files to fewer files
C. Combine Multiple HTML files to fewer files
D. Combine Images referenced in the HTML into Image sprites
E. Combine Images referenced in CSS files into Image sprites
Answer: A

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NO.4 Historical pool data is retained for:
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. retention is configurable within Global Settings
Answer: C

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NO.5 On a Stingray Traffic Manager (STM), IP transparency is configured:
A. On a per Virtual Server basis and would require the server's default gateway to be the Stingray
Traffic Manager's IP address
B. On a per Pool basis and would require the server's default gateway to be the STM's IP address
C. On a per Virtual Server basis and would not require the server's default gateway to be the STM's IP
address
D. On a per Pool basis and would not require the server's default gateway to be the STM's IP address
E. On a per Virtual Server or Pool basis and would not require the server's default gateway to be the
STM's IP address
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement best describe Cookie Persistence?
A. Cookie persistence allows persistence independent of IP address.
B. Cookie persistence allows persistence even if data are encrypted from client to nodes.
C. Cookie persistence allows persistence dependent on destination IP address.
D. Cookie persistence works even if client browser is not able to accept cookie.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following Stingray Aptimizer consequences primarily reduces in a faster Start
Render?
A. Combined CSS files are compressed and relocated to the top of the HTML.
B. JavaScript files are loaded asynchronously as a single HTTP request.
C. Images are combined into Image sprites per image format (JPG, .GIF, .PNG).
D. Aptimizer Disk cache feeds the Aptimizer cache in the system memory after an application pool
recycle or server restart.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Is SSL/TLS exclusively used only to secure HTTP?
A. Yes. It only works for HTTP.
B. No, but it can only be used on top of UDP.
C. No, but it can only be used on top of TCP.
D. No. SSL/TLS can be used on top of any transport layer protocol.
E. No. It also works for LDAP and SMTP.
Answer: D

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Les meilleures Riverbed 199-01 501-01 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 199-01
Nom d'Examen: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional)
Questions et réponses: 342 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 501-01
Nom d'Examen: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate - Storage Delivery)
Questions et réponses: 64 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three cloud providers are currently supported with Whitewater appliances? (Select 3)
A. IBM SmartCloud.
B. Microsoft Windows Azure.
C. Amazon Glacier.
D. Cloudian.
E. Rackspace.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.2 Granite technology has built-in file awareness for which file systems? (Select 2)
A. NTFS
B. VMDK
C. VMFS
D. FAT32
E. EXT3
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What two components are required to form an iSCSI connection? (Select 2)
A. An iSCSI initiator.
B. An iSCSI source.
C. An iSCSI client.
D. An iSCSI server.
E. An iSCSI destination.
F. An iSCSI target.
Answer: A,F

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NO.4 An environment has 5TB of file server data and 5TB of database data backed up with a full
backup each week. Assume the average dedupe rates for Whitewater, and assume standard 1%
change and 10% annual growth rate. With a requirement to keep a minimum of two weeks
ofbackups locally on the Whitewater cache, which Whitewater appliances would satisfy the
requirements above? (Select 2)
A. Virtual Whitewater appliance 210.
B. Virtual Whitewater appliance 410.
C. Whitewater appliance 730.
D. Whitewater appliance 2030.
E. Whitewater appliance 3030.
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 Whitewater appliance peer replication is supported in which of the following modes? (Select 2)
A. Single active/single passive (cloud only).
B. Single active/single passive (secondary Whitewater appliance only).
C. Single active/dual passive (cloud and secondary Whitewater appliance).
D. Single active/dual active (cloud and secondary Whitewater appliance in high availability mode).
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which mechanisms can cause Whitewater appliance replication to pause or effect the
optimization service? (Select 4)
A. Cloud provider outage.
B. Backup application crash.
C. WAN outage.
D. Whitewater bandwidth settings.
E. Incorrect cloud provider credentials.
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.7 A customer is looking to deploy Steelhead EX 1160-L's to 10 branches. Each branch is to have a
file server with 2TB of storage. What data set size does the Granite Core appliance need to be
capable of handling, assuming standard Granite Edge appliance blockstore sizing recommendations?
(Each 1160 has been configured with 275 GB/ 275 GB VSP/Blockstore setting)
A. 20 TB
B. 10 TB
C. 4 TB
D. 2.75 TB
E. 2 TB
Answer: D

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NO.8 What information is needed to configure a Granite Edge in the Granite Core?
A. Granite Edge Identifier.
B. IP address of the Granite Edge.
C. Primary IP address of the Granite Edge.
D. Granite Edge IQN (iSCSI Qualified Name).
E. In-path IP address of Granite Edge.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 201-01
Nom d'Examen: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate - Network Performance Management)
Questions et réponses: 195 Q&As

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NO.1 Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A

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NO.3 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
Answer: B

Riverbed   201-01   201-01

NO.4 Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select "Apply with Filter".
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 To drill down and analyze a file within Cascade Pilot, you should. (Select 2)
A. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the object.
B. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the trace file.
C. Select the View, right-click, and apply it with the filter associated with a graphic object.
D. Right-click in the View chart, and select "Drill-down" to select the View.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 What are the types of content blocks available to view Events
on the Cascade Profiler dashboard?
(Select 2)
A. Security Events
B. Performance and Availability Events
C. Current Events
D. Unacknowledged Events
E. Public Events
F. Private Events
G. Per User Events
H. Per IP Address Events
Answer: C,D

Riverbed   201-01   201-01   201-01

NO.7 On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface
Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User ¯s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
Answer: A,B,C,D

Riverbed   201-01   201-01

NO.8 To organize hosts into logical arrangements what is important to configure on Cascade Profiler.?
A. Host Baseline Profiles
B. Custom Port Definitions
C. Host Groupings
D. Mitigation Configuration
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C

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NO.10 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what do the QoS values mean?
A. They are based upon the 6-bit Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP).
B. They are based upon Host Group definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
C. They are based upon Application definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
D. They are based upon Port definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
Answer: A

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NO.11 How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are some reports Cascade Profiler provides to benefit WAN management?
A. WAN Optimization Benefits reports, Breakdown of business versus non-business application reports,
QOS reports by interface and/or application.
B. WAN Optimization of all TCP protocols with more specific optimization of over 50 TCP Applications.
C. WAN reporting of TCP Protocols.
D. QOS shaping, User-based policies that will block not compliant traffic, WAN optimization reporting.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Configuring the Cascade appliance to use RADIUS for authentication/authorization involves which of
the following tasks (in no particular order): (Select 4)
A. User Name
B. Specify the IP address of the RADIUS server
C. Port number
D. Password
E. Authentication protocol
F. Shared secret of each RADIUS server
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.14 Which of the following are differences between the Cascade Sensor and the Cascade Shark appliances?
(Select 2)
A. Cascade Shark appliance can monitor 10GE interface traffic but Cascade Sensor cannot.
B. Cascade Sensor can provide flow data to Cascade Profiler but Cascade Shark appliance cannot.
C. Cascade Shark appliance has much higher write-to-disk rates than the Cascade Sensor and is the
appropriate appliance when packet capture is the primary requirement.
D. Cascade Sensor can recognize the application type by its DPI signature database but Cascade Shark
appliance cannot.
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 What are the ways Cascade Profiler can graphically depict response times in the GUI?
A. In Overall Traffic Graphs
B. In Connection Graphs
C. In Dashboard Line Graphs
D. In Overall Traffic Graphs and in Connection Graphs
Answer: D

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NO.16 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
Answer: C,D,E

Riverbed   201-01   201-01 examen

NO.17 How does the Cascade Profiler determine the optimization levels achieved for WAN Optimization
reports?
A. Compare the amount of traffic crossing a LAN interface to the corresponding traffic crossing an
optimized WAN interface.
B. Compare updates received via SNMP from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
C. The Cascade Profiler cannot determine optimization levels.
D. Through manual entry of levels achieved.
E. Compare updates received via flows from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
Answer: A

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NO.18 In a Cascade deployment with Sensor and Profiler, what information does the Application Performance
Policy report show? (Select 4)
A. Number of connections per second
B. Average Response time
C. TCP resets
D. CPU and memory utilization of server
E. TCP retransmission
F. Number of jumbo frames
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.19 What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C

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NO.20 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services
automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 299-01
Nom d'Examen: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional - Network Performance Management)
Questions et réponses: 245 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among
Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway
and
Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and
Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while
Cascade Profiler's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
D. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while
Cascade Gateway's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
E. Cascade Profiler does all SNMP polling and is also the source of all NTP.
Answer: D

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NO.2 If a VLAN SPAN (VLAN101) is configured and monitored by Cascade Shark, which of the
following is true? (Select 2)
A. Inter VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Intra VLAN101 traffic will not.
B. Intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Inter VLAN101 traffic will not.
C. Both inter and intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored.
D. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) with
'deduplication' enabled.
E. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination)
without
'deduplication' enabled.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 When editing a previously configured service policy, what options become available if you
click the
'show advanced settings' checkbox? (Select 3)
A. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of dips in the metric.
B. Allows tuning of the tolerance range of the metric.
C. Allows setting of a noise floor for the metric.
D. Allows adjusting the notifications for the metric.
E. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of spikes in the metric.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 What is a good way to know whether all internal IP addresses seen by the Cascade Profiler
have been grouped in a particular group type?
A. Run Automatic grouping for all group types.
B. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/0; confirm there are no entries when
you
'view members' of this 'Undefined' group'.
C. There is no way to do this and successfully capture all the IP addresses.
D. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/32.
E. Run a report by hosts and look for undefined groups.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Link Congestion policies apply to a specific interface and can: (Select 3)
A. Warn if either inbound or outbound traffic increases abnormally
B. Warn if an application component of traffic increases abnormally
C. Warn if traffic to/from specific hosts exceeds a specific utilization level
D. Warn if the response time across a link increases abnormally
Answer: A,B,C

Riverbed   299-01   299-01   299-01 examen   299-01

NO.6 Within the Cascade Pilot GUI, filtered items are often indicated:
A. With red text.
B. With yellow text.
C. With a funnel icon.
D. With a hash-mark icon.
Answer: C

certification Riverbed   299-01   299-01 examen

NO.7 How do Cascade Performance Analytics assist with Performance Monitoring?
A. By setting intelligent static thresholds for Application metrics and Interface metrics, tolerance can
be
determined. Cascade will use these thresholds and tolerances to report on deviations indicative of
performance problems.
B. The Customer only needs to identify their critical hosts, interfaces and/or applications, and
Cascade
will automatically baseline their behavior and report on deviations indicative of performance
problems.
C. The Performance Analytics use knowledge of hosts, interfaces, and/or applications are able to
detect
security threats such as host scans and worms.
D. After baselining is completed, Cascade can re-route congested traffic to avoid congested
application
delivery paths.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Within Cascade Pilot, to analyze the round-trip time in a trace file, you can:
A. Ask Riverbed Support to send you the proper View to use.
B. Open the View folders in Cascade Pilot to look for a View named "Round-trip time".
C. Use the View search box and enter "round".
D. Use the Help menu and search for round.
Answer: C

Riverbed   299-01   certification 299-01   299-01   certification 299-01   certification 299-01

NO.9 If a report table on Cascade Profiler includes the "Server Delay" column but shows no value
for
"Server Delay" in some cells, what are the possible causes? (Select 3)
A. The time span of the report does not cover any connection set-up points
B. Server delay is zero.
C. The protocol used by the application in not TCP-based.
D. Application traffic was not seen by a Cascade Sensor.
E. The server plug-in is needed to measure "Server Delay" and not functioning correctly.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 When creating an analytic service, the discovery process requires a minimum of:
A. At least three days of data available.
B. At least three weeks of data available.
C. The application specialist available.
D. Some historical data and some starting point (a server, port, application).
E. A customer network diagram available.
Answer: D

Riverbed   certification 299-01   299-01 examen   299-01

NO.11 For DNS reverse lookup, Cascade Profiler caches as follows:
A. Cache the most recent 500 IPs.
B. Obey DNS TTLs.
C. Cascade does not cache DNS responses.
D. For 24 hours.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Quality of Service information is obtained from what Cascade sources?
A. Cascade Sensor only
B. Cannot get QoS data on Cascade
C. Cascade Sensor and Cascade Gateway
D. CascadeFlow traffic only
E. NetFlow and IPFIX traffic only
Answer: C

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NO.13 When changing the priority for a Layer 4 mapping on Cascade Profiler best practices indicate
that
Application Mappings should be given higher priorities based on:
A. Longest Match
B. Shortest Match
C. IP & Port
D. IP
Answer: A

Riverbed   299-01   299-01   299-01   299-01

NO.14 Which of the following configuration changes can be used to reduce the number of alerts
generated overall for a Service?
A. Edit each Service policy to increase the Tolerance slider for Low and High alerts.
B. Edit each Service policy and set a noise floor to specify the minimum amount of change that the
policy
can treat as deviation from normalbehavior.
C. Edit the Service and select fewer metrics to monitor for each segment that comprises the Service.
D. Modify the location host group type used for monitoring end user traffic to use fewer groups (for
example, Region instead of Site).
E. A, B, C, and D.
F. A and B only.
Answer: E

Riverbed   certification 299-01   299-01   certification 299-01   299-01 examen

NO.15 What are the two types of dashboards available within the Cascade Profiler GUI? (select 2)
A. Top Hosts
B. Top Applications
C. Public
D. Private
E. Devices and Interfaces Utilization
Answer: C,D

certification Riverbed   299-01 examen   certification 299-01   299-01 examen   299-01

NO.16 What is the relationship between a Host Group and a Host Group Type in Cascade Profiler?
A. A Host Group Type is a container that may contain multiple Host Groups.
B. A Host Group Type defines the name of the Host Group.
C. They are the same thing.
D. Each Host Group must be defined by the Type of application it serves; this is the Host Group
Type.
Answer: A

Riverbed   certification 299-01   299-01

NO.17 If unable to connect to the Cascade Shark Appliance from the Cascade Pilot console it could
be
because. (Select 2)
A. The correct communication port(s) are NOT open on the firewall between Cascade Pilot and
Cascade
Shark.
B. The Cascade Shark is placed in "passthru" mode so Cascade Pilot access is not available
C. The Cascade Shark appliance has no capture jobs configured.
D. You may be running Cascade Pilot-Personal-Edition (PE). You need the full version of Cascade
Pilot to
connect to Cascade Shark.
E. Trend/Index data is disabled on the Cascade Shark Appliance.
Answer: A,D

Riverbed   299-01 examen   299-01   299-01

NO.18 What are two differences between NetFlow version 5 and NetFlow version 9 (select 2)
A. NetFlow version 5 generally support ingress flow export only; NetFlow version 9 supports both
ingress
and egress export.
B. NetFlow version 5 is used for Switches, NetFlow version 9 is used for Routers.
C. NetFlow version 9 includes information about CPU, Power-status and other router performance
characteristics; NetFlow version 5 does not.
D. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the Time-To-Live (TTL); NetFlow version 5 does
not.
E. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the packet latency, NetFlow version 5 does not.
Answer: A,D

certification Riverbed   299-01   certification 299-01   299-01   299-01 examen

NO.19 Cascade Profiler's Switch Integration feature uses SNMP and adds the capability for Cascade
to report on which of the following. (Select 2)
A. User name
B. Host IP address
C. Host MAC address
D. The physical switch port a specific host is connected to
E. Switch port traffic levels
F. Switch port status
G. SNMP traps from the switch
Answer: C,D

Riverbed examen   299-01   certification 299-01

NO.20 Cascade Profiler provides identity information collected from Active Directory 2008 by
installing and
correctly configuring the 'Cascade Connector' agent software on:
A. Every DNS server in the AD environment
B. Any server in the MS domain
C. Every client desktop in the AD environment
D. Every NTP server in the MS domain
E. The Microsoft Event Collector component in the AD environment
Answer: E

Riverbed   299-01   299-01   certification 299-01   299-01 examen

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