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2014年3月20日星期四

SAP meilleur examen C-TBIT44-71 C-TB1200-88 C-BOSUP-90 C-BOE-30 C-BODI-20, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C-TBIT44-71
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver (PI 7.1))
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C-TB1200-88
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Business One 8.8)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C-BOSUP-90
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - Incident Management with SAP BusinessObjects)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C-BOE-30
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)
Questions et réponses: 239 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C-BODI-20
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Data Integrator XI R2)
Questions et réponses: 127 Q&As

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NO.1 The communication between the Integration Server and the backend applications can
be achieved
without adapters.
Which message protocol should you use for this communication type?
A. RFC-XML
B. PI-SOAP Protocol
C. File
D. JDBC 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statements are correct when using the Receiver File adapter to process XML
messages?
A. The messages are processed based on a poll cycle.
B. The adapter can convert the XML payload into a flat file.
C. The adapter can FTP the file to a remote directory.
D. The quality of service can be 'best effort' (BE) only.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 For the delivery mode of an integration process, you can choose between inbound
processing with or
without buffering.
Which of these statements correctly describes the Inbound processing mode?
A. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing with buffering.
B. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing without buffering.
C. If you select inbound processing without buffering, the qRFC entry returns an error when a
message is
to be delivered to a process instance for which no receive step is active.
D. If you select inbound processing with buffering and there is no active receive step
available to receive
an incoming message, the message is buffered in a separate, process-instance-specific
queue.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 A special aspect in B2B business processes is that the business partners involved in
these processes
do not usually provide information about their internal system landscape.
Which configuration objects are relevant for B2B configuration?
A. Receiver Determination
B. Communication Party
C. Software Component Version (SWCV)
D. Communication Channel
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 To react to situations where it is not possible or not advisable to continue a process in
the normal way,
you can define exceptions.
Which statements correctly describe the triggering of exceptions?
A. A synchronous or asynchronous Send step can trigger an exception when a system error
occurs.
B. Every step type can trigger an exception when a permanent error occurs.
C. A Control step can trigger an exception.
D. A Transformation step can trigger an exception.
E. Exceptions can only be triggered by Control steps.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 You configure the sender RFC adapter to convert RFC calls from a sender to XML
messages. These
XML messages are then sent to the Integration Server or to the PCK.
What is the purpose of the RFC adapter parameter "Program ID"?
A. The Program ID is a unique identifier for outbound proxies.
B. The Program ID must uniquely describe the RFC sender communication channel in the
configured
application server gateway.
C. The Program ID identifies proxy classes for Service Interfaces.
D. The Program ID is used in correlation for binding abstract interfaces.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The PI Mail adapter is used to send and receive emails. Which protocols are
supported?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. IMAP4
D. POP3
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 You have implemented a scenario where IDocs are posted to an ERP system using the
receiver IDoc
adapter.
Which statements correctly describe the receiver IDoc adapter of SAP NetWeaver PI?
A. IDoc packages are not supported, unless all IDocs are collected by BPM.
B. Specific fields in the IDoc control record can be overwritten using the 'header mapping'
functionality in
the Receiver Agreement.
C. Quality of service EOIO (exactly once in order) is supported, provided that the target
system is a SAP
Web AS 6.40 or above.
D. If the target system is SAP Web AS 6.20 or under, then the quality of service BE (best
effort) and EO
(exactly once) can be used.
E. A receiver communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.9 Which Process Integration objects can be used in an integration process?
A. All objects displayed in the navigation area of the Integration Builder.
B. All objects within the software component version of the integration process.
C. Only the objects within the namespace of the integration process.
D. All objects displayed in the Process Integration Scenario using this process.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are implementing an IDoc-based scenario using SAP Netweaver PI and more
specifically the
sender IDoc adapter.
Which of these steps are mandatory for the sender IDoc adapter to function properly?
A. IDoc metadata must be imported into the Enterprise Services Repository.
B. The Logical System name (ALE name) for the Business System must be defined in the
SLD.
C. A sender communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
D. An RFC destination must be defined on the sender system, pointing to the Integration
Server client.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 Assume that your customer has a scenario in which a database table needs to be
queried (i.e. to
perform a SELECT statement and obtain the result set).
What are the viable options for implementing this with the PI JDBC adapter?
A. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
B. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
C. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
D. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 You can create multiple configurations for one Integration Process without changing the
appropriate
process definition.
Which of these parameters allows you to achieve this behavior?
A. Process Signature
B. Container Definition
C. Correlation
D. Configurable Parameters in Conditions
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of these operations can be performed by a Container Operation step?
A. Incrementing a counter variable.
B. Appending a message to a multiline container element.
C. Removing a message from a multiline container element.
D. Setting the value of an XML element of a message.
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 If a system error occurs in a send step, an alert can be triggered for Alert Management
and the
integration process should then be terminated.
Where do you define the Alert Category for the appropriate Control Step?
A. Within the SLD
B. Within the transaction ALRTCATDEF on the Integration Server
C. Within the Enterprise Services Builder
D. Within the Process Editor
Answer: B

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NO.15 You have created a deadline branch. When the deadline has expired, the integration
process should be
canceled.
How can this be achieved?
A. In the deadline branch, insert a control step that cancels the process.
B. The process is automatically stopped once the deadline has expired.
C. As the process can only be stopped by the administrator, a control step that raises an alert
to inform
the administrator has to be inserted.
D. Insert a switch with an appropriate condition to stop the process.
Answer: A

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2013年7月18日星期四

Meilleur SAP C-BOE-30 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: C-BOE-30

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)

Questions et réponses: 239 Q&As

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NO.1 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise
infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal
Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.2 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes
scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of
the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose
four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.6 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter
(WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from
the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space
required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You
want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server
service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you
perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after
it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle
database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to
enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the
report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.14 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability
and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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NO.16 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server
take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server
(FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from
running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.20 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central
Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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