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Code d'Examen: E20-340
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Clariion solutiongs implementation)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 What software is used to assign IP addresses when installing a new CLARiiON?
A.Unisphere Initialization Utility
B.Unisphere Server Utility
C.Unisphere Service Manager
D.Unisphere Client
Answer: A

EMC   E20-340   E20-340 examen   E20-340   E20-340

NO.2 Which access restrictions are enabled if IP address filtering is configured on a CLARiiON?
A.Specific management clients
B.iSCSI ports, and ESRS communications
C.Unisphere service ports
D.iSCSI ports
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-340   E20-340

NO.3 How many front-end ports are required to provide failover between SPs for eight direct-attached hosts
on a CX4?
A.16
B.8
C.4
D.2
Answer: A

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NO.4 What do drives 0_0_0 to 0_0_4 in a CX4 contain?
A.FLARE and vault
B.Linux OS and metadata
C.DART and vault
D.Enginuity and metadata
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are implementing Unisphere security on a CX4 CLARiiON with FLARE 30. The customer has
requested that all certificates be validated when naviseccli is used.
What level of certificate validation does EMC recommend be set for naviseccli?
A.Medium
B.High
C.Low
D.Ignore
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-340   E20-340

NO.6 A customer has requested onsite assistance because they are currently unable to communicate with
SPA.
You arrive onsite and connect to the GbE Service LAN. What IP address do you use to connect to SPA?
A.128.221.1.250
B.192.168.1.250
C.128.221.1.251
D.192.168.1.251
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer has a domain and for security reasons, management and CLI features can only be
performed from the SAN team workstations.
How would IP filtering be configured?
A.SAN team workstation IP addresses
B.SPA IP addresses
C.DNS IP addresses
D.Management stations ¯ I P add r esse
Answer: A

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit. Which port has a fixed IP and subnet mask?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Answer: A

EMC   E20-340 examen   E20-340 examen   E20-340 examen

NO.9 How many CLARiiON arrays are qualified to be in a single domain?
A.100
B.96
C.48
D.128
Answer: A

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NO.10 When working with FLARE 30, which tool is required when upgrading FLARE or performing a DAE
upgrade?
A.Unisphere Service Manager
B.Unisphere Server Utility
C.Unisphere Initialization Utility
D.NDU Upgrade Tool
Answer: A

EMC   E20-340   E20-340   E20-340   E20-340 examen

NO.11 A customer has a CX4 series CLARiiON and is experiencing a problem with SPA. Upon arrival you
notice that the SPA Fault LED is amber and flashing at a rate of four times a second.
What is the boot state of SPA?
A.POST Starting OS
B.OS Booted
C.Executing BIOS
D.FLARE Driver Complete
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E20-340   E20-340

NO.12 Refer to the exhibit.
What is the correct order of the management module components?
A.GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; E-NMI Button
B.GbE Management LAN; B-GbE Service LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; E-NMI Button
C.SPS Port COM2; B-NMI Button; C-Service Port COM1; D-GbE Service LAN; E-GbE Management LAN
D.GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-SPS Port COM2; D-Service Port COM1; E-NMI Button
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer would like to configure NTP using Unisphere. What is the minimum polling time allowed for
NTP?
A.30 minutes
B.60 minutes
C.15 minutes
D.10 minutes
Answer: A

EMC   E20-340   certification E20-340   E20-340 examen   E20-340 examen

NO.14 What is the maximum number of disk drives that can be configured in a pool on a CX4-480.?
A.475
B.16
C.480
D.32
Answer: A

EMC   E20-340   E20-340 examen

NO.15 A customer would like to extend their CX4 cache after purchasing Flash drives.
Which Unisphere dialog should be used to configure this feature?
A.Storage System Properties, FAST Cache tab
B.Storage SP Properties, Cache tab
C.Storage SP Properties, SP Memory tab
D.Storage System Properties, SP Cache
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E22-315
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Disk Library and Backup to Disk Technologies)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 In order to increase effective usable capacity on an EMC Disk Library, which feature is available?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Auto Archive
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Virtual Tape Library Compression
Answer: D

EMC   E22-315   E22-315   E22-315

NO.2 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library at their disaster recovery site with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup application. A
small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it will eventually
expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery
site?
A.Active Tape Migrator
B.Compression
C.Remote Copy
D.Tape Capacity-on-Demand
Answer: C

certification EMC   E22-315   E22-315

NO.3 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Portability, investment protection, and TCO/ROI
C.Recovery speed, ease of use, and company reputation
D.Reliability, ease of use, and portability
Answer: A

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NO.4 What does N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV) functionality provide to a DL4200?
A.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in a switched fabric environment
B.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
C.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in a switched fabric environment
D.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
Answer: C

certification EMC   E22-315   E22-315

NO.5 What should be used to configure and manage the EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC ControlCenter for EMC Disk Library
B.EMC Disk Library Console software
C.EMC Disk Library Navisphere software
D.Management is integrated with the backup application
Answer: B

EMC examen   certification E22-315   E22-315   E22-315

NO.6 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Investment protection, space issues, and portability
C.Portability, recovery speed, and ease of use
D.TCO/ROI, company reputation, and investment protection
Answer: A

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NO.7 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Hardware compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

certification EMC   certification E22-315   certification E22-315

NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has a DL4200 connected to two switches in the same fabric, as shown in the exhibit.
Windows Backup Server X is zoned to port 1 on Engine A and Windows Backup Server Y is zoned to port
7 on Engine B. Active Engine Failover has been configured and is active.
Both backup servers are performing backups at the same time to their respective engines. Engine A has a
failure and all virtual services fail over to Engine B.
The backup administrator has verified that failover has occurred as expected but Backup X is unable to
see its virtual resources through the surviving engine even after rescanning the SCSI bus.
What is the problem?
A.Engine to switch cabling is incorrect
B.Engines are connected to different switches
C.Lack of PowerPath configuration on the backup servers
D.Missing EMC NetWorker DL-Failover license
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E22-315   E22-315   E22-315 examen

NO.9 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library in the primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library in the remote data center. What is the recommended feature to use to provide backup application
catalog consistency between two data centers?
A.ACSLS
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Remote copy
Answer: C

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NO.10 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

EMC   certification E22-315   E22-315   E22-315   E22-315   certification E22-315

NO.11 A customer with a Linux backup server plans to use a CLARiiON as the target for backups. What
should be recommended for adequate I/O performance?
A.Set the read cache to the maximum limit
B.Set the storage element to 256 KB
C.Use a cache page size of 64 KB
D.Use fdisk to correct disk misalignment
Answer: D

certification EMC   certification E22-315   E22-315

NO.12 Which type of connectivity is required from a backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.Copper Network
B.Ethernet NAS
C.Fibre Channel
D.IP NAS
Answer: C

EMC   certification E22-315   certification E22-315

NO.13 An EMC NetWorker customer is using a file type device for backup-to-disk. What will happen if the file
type device fills up?
A.Save is suspended and expired save sets on the volume are deleted
B.The device expands automatically and the save operation continues
C.The save operation is aborted and a new volume is selected for writing
D.The volume is marked full and save continues on a new volume
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which type of connectivity is required from the backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.CIFS
B.Fibre Channel
C.Internet Protocol
D.NFS
Answer: B

EMC   E22-315 examen   certification E22-315   E22-315

NO.15 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Auto Archive
B.Direct Access
C.Duplication
D.Remote copy
Answer: A

EMC   certification E22-315   E22-315 examen   E22-315 examen   E22-315

NO.16 What is the recommended configuration for a Celerra ATA disk-array enclosure that will be used as a
backup-to-disk target?
A.RAID 3 4+1
B.RAID 3 7+1
C.RAID 5 4+1
D.RAID 5 7+1
Answer: C

certification EMC   E22-315   E22-315 examen   E22-315

NO.17 What are the major components of an EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC disk drives, EMC Disk Library solutions, and EMC Disk Library services
B.EMC Disk Library appliance, EMC Disk Library, CLARiiON, and EMC Disk Library server
C.EMC Disk Library, EMC Disk Library client, and EMC Disk Library Console
D.EMC Disk Library, EMC Tape Library, and EMC Disk Library server
Answer: C

EMC   E22-315   E22-315   certification E22-315

NO.18 A customer wants to implement a solution that would allow maximum availability for backups to
complete. Which EMC Disk Library feature will provide maximum availability for their backup solution?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Backup Engine Failover
C.CLARiiON Engine Failover
D.Passive Engine Failover
Answer: A

EMC   certification E22-315   E22-315   certification E22-315   E22-315 examen

NO.19 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Advanced Copy
B.Auto Archive
C.Remote copy
D.Tape Migration
Answer: B

EMC examen   E22-315   certification E22-315   E22-315 examen   E22-315 examen

NO.20 Which EMC Disk Library models support ACSLS?
A.DL210, DL4100, DL4106
B.DL4100, DL4106, DL6100
C.DL4106, DL210, DL6100
D.DL6100, DL210, DL4100
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-610
Nom d'Examen: EMC (CLARiiON)
Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two [2] are valid methods of managing CLARiiON snapshots?
A. navilcli
B. admsnap
C. admcilone
D. admhosts
E. java-jar navicli.jar
Answer: A.B

NO.2 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
How is the metalun configured in the image?
A. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
B. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
C. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
D. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-610   E20-610

NO.3 What is the ksh syntax to use vi commands for the shell history?
A. set-o vi
B. set-h vi
C. set-hist vi
D. export history=vi
Answer: A

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NO.4 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What is the function of the "No install verify" select while binding a lun as shown in the image?
A. It will not verify the alignment offset
B. It will not verify contiguous free space
C. It will not verify if the raidgroup was transitioning
D. It will not do a background verify after the lun has been bound
Answer: D

EMC   E20-610 examen   certification E20-610   E20-610

NO.5 How does the CLARiiON preserves data in write cache during a power failure of a CX600?
A. The CX600 dumps the cache into the PSM
B. The CX600 dumps the cache into the vault area
C. The CX600 flushes the cache into the data disks
D. The CX600 dumps the cache onto the reserved space
Answer: B

EMC   E20-610 examen   E20-610   E20-610 examen

NO.6 Which three [3] characteristics do Veritas Volume manager, ALX LVM, HPUX LVM, and Solstice Disk
Suite have in common?
A. Striping at the host level
B. Provides data protection
C. Places a unique label on each disk
D. Groups disks together in volume groups
E. Creates large volumes out of smaller disks
Answer: A, B, E

EMC   E20-610   E20-610   E20-610 examen

NO.7 Which component verifies that proper cabling has been done to the Katana?
A. SPS
B. Services Processor
C. LCC Loop ID LEDs
D. Fibre Channel Director
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-610   E20-610 examen

NO.8 Why is a snapview session lost an SP failure?
A. The session was not persistent
B. The host agent was not running
C. The snapshot was not mounted
D. The snapshot was not in a storagegroup
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-610   E20-610

NO.9 DRAG DROP
What is the Power-on Sequence on the CLARiiON CX series?
Answer:

NO.10 What is the minimum amount of needs in a CLARiiON CX400 to have a hostpare?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 15
Answer: C

EMC   E20-610   E20-610 examen   E20-610   E20-610

NO.11 Select three [3] items that are true about Snap View Clones.
A. Uses CLI Provider NDU
B. Can be mounted lat any time
C. Uses COFW, Copy on First Write
D. Must be exact same size of source LUNs
E. Must use a minimum of one snap cache LUN
F. Can only be created on an array with AccessLongix
Answer: A, D, F

certification EMC   certification E20-610   E20-610   E20-610

NO.12 Which command allows for the extraction of all lines containing EMC case insensitive from the file test
txt?
A. vi test.txt
B. ed test.txt -EMC
C. grep EMC test.txt
D. grep -I emc test.txt
Answer: D

EMC   E20-610   E20-610 examen

NO.13 Which user account is needed to install drivers on UNIX servers?
A. sys
B. root
C. oracle
D. Administrator
Answer: B

certification EMC   certification E20-610   E20-610   E20-610

NO.14 What is a valid frontend SP ALPA address on CLARiiON FCC4700 series?
A. 0 - 124
B. 0 - 128
C. 0 - 224
D. 0 - 255
Answer: A

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NO.15 DRAG DROP
Match the failover modes to the software product.
Answer:

NO.16 What are the steps to add a disk to a Sun Solaris host online (no reboot of the host)?
A. Drvconfig, disks
B. Drvconfig, format, label
C. Drvconfig, disks, devlinks
D. Vi sd.conf, touch /reconfigure, init 6
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-610   E20-610

NO.17 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What does the "Alignment Offset" function align?
A. Lun on the raidgroup
B. Partition on the stripe boundary of a lun
C. Partition on the stripe size on the raidgroup
D. Partition on the metalun stripe element size
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the status of CX600 cache during the battery test in release 12?
A. read cache gets disabled
B. write cache gets disabled
C. read and write cache are not disabled
D. both read and write cache gets disabled
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-610   E20-610   E20-610

NO.19 Which CLI commands is used to verify the installed software versions?
A. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-list
B. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-installed
C. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-check
D. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 software-list
Answer: A

EMC   E20-610   E20-610   E20-610

NO.20 Which 2 mirror drives are the boot disks for SPB on a CLARiiON CX600?
A. 0_0_0
B. 0_0_1
C. 0_0_2
D. 0_0_3
Answer: B.D

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Code d'Examen: E20-017
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Information Availability Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 A company wants to replace its physical tape library with a virtual tape library (VTL). To deploy the VTL,
the company spends $300,000 for the hardware costs and $60,000 for the implementation charges. Once
the data is migrated from the physical tape library to the VTL, the physical tape library will be
decommissioned for a cost of $50,000. The company will gain $60,000 per month due to this VTL
implementation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company ¯:s initial
investment?
A. 35%; Month 6
B. 35%; Month 7
C. 76%; Month 6
D. 76%; Month 7
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company wants to replace its physical tape library with a virtual tape library (VTL). To deploy the VTL,
the company spends $300,000 for the hardware costs and $50,000 for the implementation charges.
Once the data is migrated from the physical tape library to the VTL, the physical tape library will be
decommissioned for a cost of $50,000. The company will gain $70,000 per month due to this VTL
implementation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company ¯:s initial
investment?
A. 85%; Month 8
B. 85%; Month 9
C. 110%; Month 6
D. 110%; Month 8
Answer: C

EMC   certification E20-017   E20-017

NO.3 In the context of "establishing information availability," what is an operation management activity?
A. Capacity planning
B. Data classification
C. Testing
D. Implementation planning
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which focus area of the Information Availability Design Framework can platform integrity be found?
A. Store
B. Automate
C. Create copies
D. Distribute
Answer: A

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NO.5 As represented in the exhibit, a company has a system with three critical components.
Each component must be functioning for the system to be operational. SLAs have been established
between the business and IT that define normal hours of operations for service as 8 A.M. - 8 P.M.,
Monday through Friday.
What is the availability (percentage) of Component 1?
A. 78
B. 81.7
C. 89
D. 91.7
Answer: B

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NO.6 A company's IT department is comparing two technology proposals. Option 1 would retain legacy
equipment while Option 2 would replace the existing equipment with a new one.
Option 1:
-Total operation costs = $400,000 per year -Annual storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial investment = $1,250,000 -Recurring annual operation costs = $150,000 per year -Annual storage
requirements = $100,000 per year
The company's write-off costs for the legacy equipment is $50,000. As a business analyst using a TCO
analysis, which option would you recommend?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
D. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company has a system with three critical components as represented in the exhibit.
Each component must be functioning for the system to be operational. Following an outage, certain
components seem to take longer to restore back to service than others.
What is the mean time to repair (MTTR) for Component 3?
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 10 hours
Answer: C

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NO.8 The exhibit represents the expected financial results of a storage technology investment.
What does the ® ¯: represent?
A. Cost of investment equals the gain from the investment
B. Asset exceeds liability
C. Deployment cost crosses the planned deployment time
D. Return on investment
Answer: A

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NO.9 A company has estimated a cost of $240,000 to build its new data center. The new data center will
serve an additional 20,000 clients for which the company will gain $35,000 per month. In addition, the
company has agreed to spend $2,000 every month in support costs.
In order to achieve a break-even point, what is the minimum time period the data center must be
operational?
A. 8 months
B. 9 months
C. 10 months
D. 11 months
Answer: A

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NO.10 A company has a shared pre-staged infrastructure at an alternate site. This approach enables the
company to rebuild systems and applications in the event of a disaster.
What is the term for this strategy?
A. Hot site
B. Manual failover site
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: A

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NO.11 Based on strategic plans regarding green initiatives, an IT department is considering server
consolidation in its data centers.
Which set of elements should be included in the business value analysis to maximize the ROI for such an
initiative?
A. Asset utilization, recovery of stranded assets, and cost of floor space and power
B. Productivity of staff, response to business conditions, and utilization of storage
C. Asset utilization, backup costs, and need for availability
D. Cost of floor space and power, FTE-managed TB of storage, and reduction in SLA penalties
Answer: A

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NO.12 A company has estimated a cost of $220,000 to build its new data center. The new data center will
serve an additional 20,000 clients for which the company will gain $30,000 per month. In addition, the
company has agreed to spend $1,000 every month in support costs.
In order to achieve a break-even point, what is the minimum time period the data center must be
operational?
A. 8 months
B. 9 months
C. 10 months
D. 11 months
Answer: A

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NO.13 The exhibit represents a Component Failure Impact Analysis (CFIA) for a company's IT infrastructure.
Several Requests for Change (RFC) were raised.
Which RFC should be considered a priority for implementation?
A. Deploying a switch architecture with no single point of failure
B. Clustering the backup server with multiple storage devices
C. Configuring the NAS device in an active-active mode
D. Adding more disk drives to the storage array
Answer: A

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NO.14 In which focus area of the Information Availability Design Framework can seamless movement of data
between tiers of storage be found?
A. Automate
B. Create Copies
C. Distribute
D. Store
Answer: A

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NO.15 As represented in the exhibit, a company has a system with three critical components. Each component
must be functioning for the system to be operational.
What is the scheduled availability (percentage) for the system?
A. 84
B. 86
C. 88
D. 90
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-405
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Content Management Server Programming(CMSP))
Questions et réponses: 229 Q&As

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NO.1 Which DFC interface provides a getCheckoutDirectory() method that returns the local checkout
directory?
A. IDfClient
B. IDfClientX
C. IDfSession
D. IDfClientRegistry
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is true about Connection Brokers?
A. A Connection Broker is not required in order to establish a session between DFC application and
Content Server.
B. To perform IP translation through a firewall, you need to have two Connection Brokers.
C. Load balancing across Connection Brokers is not natively supported.
D. When you shut down a Content Server, it automatically shuts down its primary Connection Broker.
Answer: A

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NO.3 How should you deploy a TBO to the respository?
A. Using IDfClient.newModule() only
B. Using Documentum Application Installer only
C. Using both Documentum Application Installer and IDfClient.newModule()
D. Using Documentum Application Installer, IDfClient.newModule() and IDfClient.newService()
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which is NOT a valid interface?
A. IDfCabinet
B. IDfFolder
C. IDfDocument
D. IDfGroup
Answer: A

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NO.5 Given an SBO called com.mycompany.ICreditScore and the following statement:
newModule(repositoryName, "com.mycompany.ICreditScore", sessionMgr)
What does the statement do?
A. deploys com.mycompany.ICreditScore module
B. deploys com.mycompany.ICreditScore service
C. deploys and instantiates com.mycompany.ICreditScore module
D. deploys and instantiates com.mycompany.ICreditScore service
Answer: C

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NO.6 encrypt the password

NO.7 Which statement is true?
A. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a ticket from the current session.
B. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a new session object for the current user.
C. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a new session object for the super user.
D. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a ticket from a new session.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Given the following repositories that are projecting to the following Connection Brokers:
How do you dynamically add host2 as additional Connection Broker, such that Docbase A and Docbase B
are listed as available repositories?
A. change "host = host1" to "host = host1, host2" in dmcl.ini
B. execute IDfDocbrokerClient.addDocbroker("host2",1489);
C. add the following statements in the dmcl.ini: [DOCBROKER_BACKUP_1] host=host2 port=1489
D. add the following statements in the dmcl.ini: [DOCBROKER_SECONDARY] host=host2 port=1489
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click the <Exhibit> button.
Which interface is missing in the diagram?
A. IDfFolder
B. IDfCabinet
C. IDfPersistentObject
D. IDfNonPersistentObject
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement is true about Trusted Content Services (TCS)?
A. TCS is not required to create ApplicationPermission entries.
B. TCS is not required to evaluate ApplicationPermission entries.
C. TCS is not required to delete ApplicationPermission entries.
D. TCS validates and enforces application permissions at the server level.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A TBO has been created for the custom object type called my_loan_application. If the following
statement is executed in a Webtop custom component, where is the TBO executed?
IDfSysObject loanApp = (IDfSysObject)session.newObject("my_loan_application");
A. The TBO executes on the client browser's JVM.
B. The TBO executes on the Global Registry computer.
C. The TBO executes on the application server JVM.
D. The TBO execuctes on the Content Server JVM.
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-405   E20-405

NO.12 Given the following repositories that are projecting to the following Connection Brokers:
What is the output for the code, assuming you are using a session established to Docbase C from host2?
A. null
B. Docbase C
C. Docbase B Docbase C
D. Docbase A Docbase B Docbase C
Answer: C

EMC   E20-405   E20-405

NO.13 When are the binding rules for a virtual document actually applied?
A. When the virtual document is saved
B. When IDfSysObject.asVirtualDocument() is called
C. When IDfVirtualDocumentNode.getChildCount() is called
D. When IDfVirtualDocument.getRootNode() is called
Answer: C

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NO.14 Where are the credentials located for the BOF's client dynamic delivery mechanism?
A. dfc.properties
B. dmcl.ini
C. bof.properties
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

EMC   E20-405   E20-405   E20-405

NO.15 What are the minimum required components to extend custom object type behavior?
A. TBO and SBO
B. TBO and DFC
C. SBO and DFC
D. SBO and Web Services Framework
Answer: B

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NO.16 How do you manually configure the DFC global registry?
A. 1.add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
B. 1.encrypt the password
2. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
C. 1.activate the registry user
2. change the password

NO.17 Given the following architecture:
To disable full-text search for end users of Webtop, on which computer should you update the
dfc.properties file?
A. server1 only
B. app1 only
C. both server1 and local1
D. both app1 and local1
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which interface can be used when creating repository objects that have content?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfDocument
C. IDfPersistentObject
D. IDfContentObject
Answer: B

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NO.19 What happens when you fail to close open query collections in a DFC application?
A. Performance for other users will be impaired.
B. Eventually, no more queries can be executed.
C. Garbage collection will release appropriate resources.
D. The session will disconnect.
Answer: B

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NO.20 How can you provide an interface for a custom object type that gets instantiated using DFC methods
such as getObject()?
A. extend IDfDocument
B. extend IDfSysObject
C. create a TBO with an interface for the custom object type
D. create an SBO with an interface for the custom object type
Answer: C

EMC   E20-405   E20-405   E20-405

NO.21 Which statement is true about Documentum Web Services Framework (WSF)?
A. All business objects can be exposed as Services using WSF.
B. Currently WSF does not support secured SOAP transfer.
C. WSF does not require UDDI to discover Web services.
D. Currently WSF only supports J2EE clients.
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which code should you use to create a copy of the current object and place it in CopyCab?
A. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.savelock();
B. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.unlink("/SourceCab");
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.saveAsNew( false );
C. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.newObject(myId);
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.save();
D. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.unlink("/SourceCab");
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.save();
Answer: B

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NO.23 What is the correct hierarchy in the Documentum object model?
A. dm_folder inherits from dm_cabinet, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
B. dm_sysobject inherits from dm_document.
C. dm_document inherits from dm_folder, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
D. dm_category inherits from dm_folder, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
Answer: D

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NO.24 What kind of module is used to create a Documentum Web Service?
A. Type-based Business Object
B. Service-based Business Object
C. Web-based Business Object
D. Custom Module
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which interface declares the save()method?
A. IDfSysObject
B. IDfTypedObject
C. IDfDocument
D. IDfPersistentObject
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which SBO method signature is valid for conversion to a web service?
A. void setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
B. boolean uploadConfiguration(java.io.File myFile)
C. boolean setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
D. int countDocuments(IDfSession sess, String qualification)
Answer: B

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NO.27 add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
D. 1.create a new user as a consumer
2. designate the user as a registry user
3. encrypt the password
4. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
Answer: C

EMC   E20-405 examen   E20-405
3. You have a working registered table called "CompanyList" with one string column called
"CompanyName" with one row value "EMC."
What is the output of the following statements?
A. null
B. EMC
C. CompanyName
D. A DfException is thrown.
Answer: D

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4. Which statement is true?
A. You use the IDfClient.getQuery method to obtain an IDfQuery object.
B. The execute method of an IDfQuery object returns an IDfCollection.
C. The execute method of an IDfQuery object returns an IDfEnumeration.
D. The execute method of an IDfQuery object only requires the repository name as a parameter.
Answer: B

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NO.28 A custom object type called my_loan_application is created with a custom repeating attribute called
borrower_names. The data type of the attribute is String.
Which interface declares a method to update borrower_names?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfType
C. IDfValueAssistance
D. IDfCustomObject
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which statement is true about the object model?
A. dmr_content is not a sub-type of dm_sysobject although sysobject contents are stored as dmr_content
objects.
B. dm_acl objects are stored in the System cabinet.
C. Not all sysobjects can have associated permissions.
D. Virtual documents are objects of type dm_relation that describe a parent/child relationship between
objects.
Answer: A

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NO.30 A TBO has been created for a custom object type called my_loan_application. The TBO relies on a
dependant SBO to calculate credit scores. The TBO is only invoked by the Webtop application.
Where does the SBO execute?
A. Global registry machine
B. Content Server JVM
C. Application Server JVM
D. the client browser's JVM
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E22-250
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Management - Smarts Administration)
Questions et réponses: 174 Q&As

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NO.1 A root-cause problem is presented that states one of a router interfaces is down. What is the
underlying issue?
A.Router interface is administratively down and operationally down.
B.Router interface is administratively up and operationally down.
C.Router is completely down.
D.SNMP Agent on that router is not responding.
Answer:B

EMC   certification E22-250   E22-250   E22-250

NO.2 At a customer site, many different networks are being managed by a single IP domain, which is
generating many DuplicateIP alerts in SAM. How can you avoid these DuplicateIP alerts?
A.Filter the Duplicate network
B.Use a different IP-AM for each network
C.Use a different SAM for each network
D.Use IP Tagging
Answer:D

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NO.3 There is a firewall between the servers on which the Domain Managers are running. You are
troubleshooting a connectivity issue with the Smarts deployment. Which command is used to verify the
TCP ports on which the Domain Managers are listening?
A.brcontrol
B.sm_ping
C.sm_service show
D.sm_what
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedVia/ConnectedTo
B.PackagedIn/Packages
C.Realizes/RealizedBy
D.Underlying/LayeredOver
Answer:C

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NO.5 Oper1, a user, would like to share a saved map with other users. What does the admin need to do?
A.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\console folder on the Global Manager
B.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\consoles folder on the Global Manager
C.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\console folder on the Global Manager
D.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\consoles folder on the Global Manager
Answer:D

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NO.6 An organization is looking for a way to effectively scale in an intricate heterogeneous IT environment.
Which part of the Smarts A3 architecture will minimize the manual effort to accomplish this goal?
A.Automation
B.Abstraction
C.Analytics
D.Analysis
Answer:B

EMC examen   E22-250   E22-250

NO.7 Click the Exhibit button. A router monitored by these polling settings has just been polled, and the
operational status of Interface A is DOWN. Ten seconds after the initial poll, the interface operational
status changes to UP. How long will it take from the last poll for the IP Domain Manager to set this
interface's status to UP?
A.15 minutes
B.700 milliseconds
C.9 seconds
D.900 minutes
Answer:A

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NO.8 What does the context filter determine when defining a tool?
A.If the tool is grayed out
B.If the tool is visible
C.The acceptable state for tool use
D.Which attributes are passed
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which relationship of a switch is expanded to view the instances of its ports, in the Topology Browser?
A.ComposedOf
B.HostConnectionPoints
C.Overlaying
D.PartOf
Answer:A

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NO.10 A new Windows 2003 Enterprise Server from Vendor XYZ needs to be discovered. The Smarts admin
created an entry for this server in oid2type_Field.conf. .1.3.6.1.4.1.9999.1.12 { TYPE = Switch VENDOR
= XYZ MODEL = Widget5550 CERTIFICATION = TEMPLATE INSTRUMENTATION: Interface-Fault =
MIB2 Interface-Performance = MIB2 } After discovering this new server, which class will it be part of?
A.Host
B.It will not be added to the topology
C.Node
D.Switch
Answer:D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button. The current weights.conf file contains: ClassWeight ICIM_ManagedElement 1
Which impact value would be calculated for this Router Down problem?
A.102
B.1000
C.1002
D.10002
Answer:C

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NO.12 To ensure that Discovery probes every IP address on a Class B IP network you set the Discovery filter
to 10.1.*.*. . However, you see that most devices in that range have not been discovered. Why?
A.MaximumHostBits parameter in discovery.conf is set to 8 by default.
B.Some of those IP addresses do not exist.
C.The systems have been throttled and placed on the Pending Device List.
D.You have run out of licenses.
Answer:A

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NO.13 Which sm_server parameters are required when starting a Service Assurance Manager?
A.--name and --config
B.--name and --port
C.--server and --config
D.--server and --port
Answer:A

EMC   E22-250   E22-250   E22-250   E22-250

NO.14 Which information is needed by IP Availability Manager to communicate with an EMC Celerra NAS in
addition to its IP address?
A.Control Station port number
B.Data Mover port number
C.Port number
D.Username, password
Answer:D

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NO.15 Which command can be used in a script that will stop the Service Assurance Manager SMARTS-SA?
A.dmquit -s SMARTS-SA --force
B.dmquit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
C.sm_quit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
D.sm_quit -s SMARTS-SA --ignore
Answer:A

EMC   E22-250   E22-250

NO.16 A customer's environment has many different networks that are being managed by Smarts. As a result
of this there are many DuplicateIP notifications. What is an effect on Smarts of having DuplicateIP
notifications?
A.Each duplicated IP object is unmanaged.
B.IP Domain Manager polls twice as often.
C.Network connections will not be represented correctly.
D.Root-cause analysis of other events will be correlated to these Duplicate IPs.
Answer:A

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NO.17 A switch appears down in Service Assurance Manager. After trying to troubleshoot the problem, an
operator finds out that the switch has been removed from service. Why didn't this switch automatically
become Unmanaged in Smarts?
A.IP Availability Manager needs to be restarted to remove this switch.
B.Other devices that were connected to this switch are still reachable by Smarts.
C.This switch requires rediscovery.
D.Unmanaging devices is a manual process.
Answer:D

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NO.18 Which Performance Monitor Setting will give early warning that an interface is too busy?
A.IPThreshold
B.Restart Trap Window
C.UnicastThreshold
D.UtilizationThreshold
Answer:D

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NO.19 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedTo/ConnectedVia
B.HostsAccessPoints/HostedBy
C.MemberSystems/MemberOf
D.Realizes/RealizedBy
Answer:D

EMC examen   E22-250   E22-250

NO.20 The EMEA NOC, America NOC, and Asia NOC each has visibility to regional NOCs. Each regional
NOC implements one or more Smarts applications and uses its own Smarts Service Assurance Manager
to provide an end-to-end view of the region. What needs to be configured to architect EMC Smarts
solutions to view all regions?
A.Hierarchical SAM configuration
B.Smarts Aggregation Adapter
C.Smarts Topology Split Manager
D.Standard SAM configuration
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: E20-520
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Calriion solutions specialist exam)
Questions et réponses: 520 Q&As

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NO.1 What makes sizing of the reserved LUN pool a non-trivial task?
A.Reserved LUNs are assigned to specific source LUNs when the CLARiiON is laid out.
B.Source LUNs can be different sizes and only write to LUNs of the same size.
C.Reserved LUN pools may be different sizes and allocation to source LUNs is based on the next
available reserved LUN.
D.There are 512 reserved LUNs in all CLARiiON models while there may be many more source LUNs.
Answer:C

EMC examen   E20-520   E20-520 examen   E20-520   E20-520

NO.2 A customer starts four SnapView sessions on a source LUN. The sessions are scheduled to start at
8:00 A.M., 12:00 P.M., 4:00 P.M., and 8:00 P.M. At 5:15 P.M. the reserved LUN pool runs out of
space.What will happen next?
A.Most recently allocated reserved LUN will be released.
B.Reserved LUN allocated first will be released.
C.Space used by all sessions on the source LUN will be released.
D.Space used by the session that performed the most recent write will be released.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which device is enabled by default when creating a mirror set in a MirrorView/S environment on a
CX4-120 with FLARE 28?
A.Write intent log
B.Reserved LUN pool
C.Secondary Image
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:B

EMC   E20-520   E20-520 examen   E20-520 examen

NO.4 A storage administrator wants to use a point-in-time copy of a production LUN for testing and possibly
keep any changed data from that copy. The administrator's goal is to minimize the performance impact on
the production LUN as well as use the point-in-time copy for restoring their data.What is the extent size for
this LUN?
A.Use a clone and promote it as needed
B.Use a clone and reverse-synchronize as needed
C.Use a snapshot of a clone and roll back as needed
D.Use a snapshot and deactivate command to make changes permanent on the production LUN
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which best describes the MirrorView/A replication process?
A.A write is received, tracked in the SAN Copy delta set mechanism, transmitted to the secondary array.
B.A write is received, tracked in the fracture log, transmitted to the secondary array.
C.A write is received, tracked in the SnapView private LUN, transmitted to the secondary array.
D.A write is received, tracked in the write intent log, transmitted to the secondary array.
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which statement applies when the Protected Restore option is enabled on a clone?
A.Once the reverse synchronization is complete, the clone is fractured.
B.All SnapView sessions on the source LUN must be stopped.
C.A clone cannot be marked "dirty" before starting a reverse synchronization.
D.When reverse synchronization is in process, no writes are allowed to the source LUN or clone.
Answer:A

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NO.7 A customer intends to use clones in their environment. They are concerned about the usability of clone
data.They ask about the result of removing a clone from a clone group.Which statement describes the
result of that operation?
A.Clone LUN may be used for reverse-synchronization operations.
B.Clone LUN may be used for synchronization operations.
C.Data on the clone LUN is flagged in the clone private LUN.
D.Data on the clone LUN is not affected and may be used by a host.
Answer:D

EMC examen   E20-520   E20-520

NO.8 What does the fracture log allow?
A.Incremental resynchronization of data
B.Creation of markers for each modified track
C.Capture of persistency errors from the source to target
D.Connectivity failures from both directions
Answer:A

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NO.9 The primary image of a MirrorView/S mirror set has trespassed from SPA to SPB on the primary
array.Which SP now owns the secondary image?
A.ALUA determines ownership
B.SPA on the secondary array
C.Neither SPA or SPB
D.SPB on the secondary array
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which statement describes the operation of the reserved LUN pool?
A.LUN IDs of reserved LUNs in the reserved LUN pool can only be between 2048 and 4096.
B.All reserved LUNs must be the same size, on FC disks, and have the same RAID type.
C.Separate reserved LUN pools are required for SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
D.Reserved LUN pool is shared between SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
Answer:D

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NO.11 The number and size of SnapView pointers have reached memory allocation. What will take place to
adjust to this situation?
A.Pointers will be paged to the reserved LUN as required.
B.128 KB memory chunks will be added until the memory usage has been satisfied.
C.Pointers will be paged to and from the reserved LUN as required in 512 KB chunks.
D.An additional reserve LUN will be required.
Answer:C

EMC   E20-520 examen   E20-520 examen

NO.12 During normal MirrorView/S operations, Navisphere Manager permits host access to how many
secondary images?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.4
Answer:A

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NO.13 In a MirrorView/S environment, a primary image is owned by SPA on the primary array. Which SP must
own the secondary image on the secondary array within the same mirror set?
A.Either SP on the secondary array
B.SPB on the secondary array
C.SPA on the secondary array
D.It is marked as a private LUN on the secondary array
Answer:C

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NO.14 What happens when a snapshot is deactivated?
A.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the primary host.
B.The SnapView session ends.
C.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the secondary host.
D.All metadata is removed from the SP.
Answer:C

EMC examen   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520

NO.15 If a customer wants to present a secondary image LUN of a MirrorView/S mirror set to a host, what
must they do first?
A.The primary image must be removed from the mirror set.
B.The secondary image must be placed in the host storage group.
C.The secondary image must be removed from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
D.The secondary image must be fractured from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
Answer:C

EMC   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520

NO.16 What is the process for flagging source LUNs?
A.Snapshots are created, changing the LUN's state.
B.Via GUI interface or CLI the state change bit is switched.
C.The PSM LUN is set to "source."
D.Via Navisphere Analyzer the FLARE LUN is changed to a PSM LUN.
Answer:A

EMC   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520 examen

NO.17 Which object would maintain the changes to a source LUN in the event a MirrorView/S configuration
suffered a link outage followed by an SP trespass?
A.Metavolume
B.Fracture log
C.Write intent log
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:C

certification EMC   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520 examen

NO.18 What CLARiiON is needed to meet a customer's requirement for their MirrorView/S environment that
will have 50 consistency groups?
A.CX4, FLARE 22
B.CX4, FLARE 28
C.CX3, FLARE 26
D.CX3, FLARE 28
Answer:B

EMC   certification E20-520   E20-520

NO.19 A storage administrator tries to create a clone group on a CLARiiON CX4 and receives an error
message that stops the clone group from being created.What could be a possible cause?
A.MirrorView has not been configured.
B.Population latency has not been configured.
C.No CPLs have been allocated.
D.No reserved LUNs have been allocated.
Answer:C

EMC   E20-520 examen   E20-520 examen   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520 examen

NO.20 Should a SnapView session stop automatically, what will happen to the running sessions?
A.All sessions pointing to the clone will fail over to SP B and continue to write.
B.All sessions running on the source LUN will be terminated.
C.Host buffers will be flushed and sessions restarted.
D.All memory mapping entries will be saved to the COFW log.
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: E20-335
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 Open Replicator pull will be used to move data between a third party array and a Symmetrix V-Max
array.
What is recommended before starting the Open Replicator session?
A. Ensure that the remote devices are Host read/write enabled
B. Ensure that the control devices are Not Ready
C. Ensure that the remote devices are Host inaccessible
D. Ensure that the control devices are Write Disabled
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which command is used to set or reset HBA port flags on Symmetric arrays running Enable 7.0
Enginuity 5874?
A. symcfg
B. symmask
C. symconfigure
D. symaccess
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is recommended before creating a TimeFinder/Mirror replica?
A. Ensure that the production application using the source devices is shut down
B. Ensure that all writes from the production application using the source devices are paused!
C. Ensure that the BCVs are not being actively accessed
D. Set the BCVs to a Not Ready state
Answer: Chttp://www.scribd.com/doc/37352326/Emc-Study-2

NO.4 Which file contains the parameter that can change the default behavior of SYMCLI operations, and
there control actions?
A. SYMCLI options File
B. SYMAPI Options File
C. SYMCLI Command File
D. SYMAPI Command File
Answer: B

EMC   E20-335   certification E20-335   E20-335

NO.5 Diagnostic messaging for the GNS daemon is written to which file?
A. /7SYMAPI/emc/storgnsd .log0
B. /SYMAPI/log/storgnsd.log0
C. /SYMAPl/usr/storgnsd log0
D. /SYMAPl/bin/storgnsd log0
Answer: B

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NO.6 Refer to the exhibit
What is the correct state for the Standard and Rl-BCV prior to issuing a symreplicate start command?
A. Synchronized
B. Suspended
C. Split
D. Write-Enable
Answer: C

EMC   E20-335   E20-335 examen   E20-335 examen

NO.7 On the Symmetrix platform, which type of RAID protection ensures the best random write performance?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID S
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.8 How does Delta Set Extension help in an SRDF/A deployment?
A. Reduces RPO
B. Reduces the amount of required cache
C. Improves response time
D. Absorbs bursts of host writes
Answer: D

EMC   E20-335   E20-335 examen

NO.9 You have been asked to create a configuration for a single engine Symmetric V-Max array with 8 DAEs
and 64 drivers. They would like to have the data devices with RAID 5(7+1) protection.
What would be the largest number of members you would recommend for a stripped metavolume.?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-335   E20-335

NO.10 In symmetric V-max series array running Enginuity 5874, which device is used as a pass-through
device for Auto provisioning?
A. VDEV
B. VCM
C. ACLX
D. SFS
Answer: C

EMC   E20-335 examen   E20-335 examen

NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
A database server has its logs stored on a volume on the log source Symmetrix V-Max array and its data
stored on a volume on the data source Symmetrix V-Max array. Both source Symmetrix V-Max array
frames replicate data to the target Symmetrix V-Max array at the Remote site. There are two device
groups that have been defined:
One group for the data volume on the Symmetrix containing the data LUNs
One group for the log volume on the Symmetrix containing the log LUNS
What happens if the SRDF inks between the Symmetrix contain the data LUNs and the target Symmetrix
were to fail?
A. The R2 data in the database remains consistent because Enginuity Consistency Assist (RDFECAJ
technology would ensure data consistency).
B. The data in the database becomes inconsistent at the Remote site.
C. An SRDF failover would be initiated on all volumes and processing will automatically be switched over
to the Remote site
D. The R2 volumes in the Symmetrix V-Max containing the log LUNs would become write-disabled to the
database server
Answer: C

EMC   E20-335   E20-335

NO.12 What is required to ensure the integrity of data on the R2 volume during a SRDF fallback operation?
A. Remove entries from the file system table
B. Stop any applications that are accessing the R2 volume
C. Disable journaling on the file system
D. Suspend the RDF link
Answer: B

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NO.13 An SRDF failover has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation. What is the
expected status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing SRDF failover operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Wnte Disabled; R2 Read/Wnte
C. R1 Read/Wnte, R2 Read/Wnte
D. R1 Read/Wnte. R2 Wnte Disabled
Answer: Bhttp://www.scribd.com/doc/29541661/Srdf-Operations-white-Paper

NO.14 One of the requirements, during an Open Replicator implementation is that production application
should not be implemented by open Replication session. An analysis of the control Symmetrix showed
that FA ports are currently 70% utilized. How should pace and ceiling be configured?
A. Pace should be set to 0 and Ceiling should be left at the default
B. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 30
C. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 100
D. Pace should be set to 9 and Ceiling should be set to 70
Answer: B

EMC examen   certification E20-335   E20-335 examen   E20-335 examen   E20-335

NO.15 Where is the volume Logix Database maintained starting with DMX-3?
A. VCM gatekeeper
B. Symmetrix logical Volume
C. Symmetrix File System
D. VCM database.
Answer: C

EMC   E20-335   certification E20-335   E20-335

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