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Code d'Examen: ST0-130

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Management Platform 7.1 Technical Assessment)

Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 How long are User-based policies cached on a managed computer?
A. one week
B. one month
C. two weeks
D. two months
Answer: A

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NO.2 How does the Symantec Management Console help keep reports secure and scoped?
A. by enforcing permissions that determine which reports users can view
B. by scoping privileges that determine which reports users can view
C. by using report filters so that only specific report data is displayed
D. by prompting Altiris Agents for log in credentials before viewing reports
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-130   ST0-130

NO.5 What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Console
C. Package Service
D. Task Service
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator has joined a computer to a domain managed by Microsoft Active Directory.
Which two items must the administrator enable to automate the installation of the Altiris Agent on this
computer.? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent for Windows - Install policy
B. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed filter
C. Microsoft Active Directory import rule
D. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed target
E. Scheduled Push to Computers policy
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
There is one Notification Server at HQ that manages all desktops and laptops throughout the WAN. What
should be configured to reduce processor load on the Notification Server and move network intensive
services closer to their points of distribution?
A. Organizational Units
B. Replication Management
C. Site Management
D. Security Sites
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-130   ST0-130   ST0-130

NO.8 Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?
A. to save the results for later reference
B. to use in a resource target
C. to use in a portal page
D. to be able to e-mail the results
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-130   ST0-130

NO.9 Under which menu option are filters located in the Symantec Management Console?
A. Manage
B. Settings
C. Actions
D. Home
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator needs to review several Symantec Management Console reports daily and would like
to have them in a single view. How can the reports be combined into a single view?
A. create a custom dashboard that merges the reports
B. create a custom portal page that displays each of the reports as web parts
C. export the reports and import them into one custom folder
D. link each of the reports to a single custom sub-menu item
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-130   ST0-130 examen   ST0-130

NO.11 Which two services can a Site Server provide? (Select two.)
A. Package Service
B. OAB Service
C. Task Service
D. AEXSVC Service
E. Replication Service
Answer: A,C

Symantec   ST0-130 examen   ST0-130   ST0-130

NO.12 What is the Symantec recommended method for a Service Desk agent to use to install the Altiris Agent
when visiting a user's cubicle?
A. Manual Pull
B. Manual Push
C. Scheduled Push
D. Agent Upgrade Policy
Answer: A

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NO.13 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without administrative
intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Log Viewer
B. Reports
C. Notification Server
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which policies run on Notification Server and are not concerned with agent activity on managed
computers?
A. Automation policies
B. Target-based policies
C. User-based policies
D. Filter-based policies
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and stores
it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is a properly configured middleware computer known as?
A. Task Service
B. Subnet Server
C. Site Server
D. Package Server
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-130   ST0-130

NO.19 Refer to the Exhibit.
The administrator created a report that returns the status of computers. Which menu item should the
administrator choose to compare the status from month to month?
A. Snapshot
B. Web Part
C. Static Filter
D. XML File
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which component contains the core service of the Symantec Management Platform?
A. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. Altiris Agent
C. Site Service
D. Notification Server
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 250-310

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange)

Questions et réponses: 318 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which two databases are directly associated with Stores in Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

Symantec examen   250-310   250-310 examen

NO.3 What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A. a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B. a geographic configuration reference
C. a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D. a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

Symantec   250-310 examen   250-310   250-310

NO.5 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 Which two core databases should an administrator allocate storage for during the Enterprise Vault
initial installation? (Select two.)
A. Vault Directory Database
B. Vault Store Database
C. Audit Database
D. Monitoring Database
E. Log Database
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 There are multiple Active Directory domains with Exchange servers in each domain. One Enterprise
Vault (EV) server is set up in one domain. Trust is established between the EV domain and the other
domains. What must be done in order for a single EV server to archive the Exchange servers?
A. Break the trust between the Active Directory domains
B. Configure the EV client to allow trusted domains
C. Select the domain boxes in the Archiving Task properties
D. Add the Active Directory domains under the Targets container
Answer: D

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NO.10 Given a multi-site installation, which Enterprise Vault (EV) component contains the configuration
information for all the EV sites?
A. Vault Store database
B. Vault Store Group database
C. Vault Directory database
D. Vault Configuration database
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are two valid reasons for specifying DNS aliases? (Select two.)
A. to ensure that the Enterprise Vault (EV) server can be joined to the Windows domain
B. to simplify reconfiguration of the EV infrastructure
C. to ensure that the EV server can be contacted from external domains
D. to make it possible to use the EV built-in failover mechanisms
E. to broadcast the EV server's IP address to all clients on the network
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What is a benefit of changing the
default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the function of the Task Controller Service in Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. to interface between other EV tasks and the directory database
B. to manage EV storage of archived data
C. to support the Web Access application
D. to maintain indexes of archived data and to provide results of search requests
E. to manage the various archiving tasks to archive data from targets
Answer: E

Symantec examen   250-310   250-310

NO.14 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers. How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.15 An organization has five Enterprise Vault (EV) servers. The servers are part of one Directory and two
EV sites. The Directory consists of two Vault Store Groups with two Vault Stores for each
group. How many EV Directory database(s), Fingerprint database(s), and Vault Store database(s) are in
the environment, respectively?
A. 2, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 1, 4
D. 2, 2, 2
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users.? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.17 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: A,C

Symantec   250-310   250-310   250-310 examen

NO.18 An organization has a security requirement to track changes made to the Enterprise Vault (EV)
environment pertaining to retention categories, archiving policies, and archive permissions. Which tool
provides this data?
A. EV Auditing
B. EV Operation Monitor
C. EV Reporting
D. EV Event Log
Answer: A

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NO.19 An administrator is installing Enterprise Vault (EV). Where should the installer place the EV databases
and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which component is directly below the Enterprise Vault Directory in the Vault Administration console's
hierarchy?
A. Vault Store Groups
B. Enterprise Vault Targets
C. Enterprise Vault Sites
D. Enterprise Vault Servers
Answer: C

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NO.21 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies. Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving
strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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NO.22 What is the purpose of the Enterprise Vault Directory Service?
A. to provide service access to Vault Stores and Archives
B. to manage indexes of archived data
C. to manage selected items to be restored
D. to provide services access to site configuration information
Answer: D

Symantec examen   certification 250-310   250-310

NO.23 A global organization plans to deploy Enterprise Vault (EV). The organization has a severe limit on the
connectivity between two sites. Site A supports seven remote offices and Site B supports five remote
offices. A global deployment of EV is unrealistic. How should the organization design around this
obstacle?
A. deploy multiple EV Directories
B. deploy multiple EV sites that share a single directory
C. deploy all EV servers in Site A
D. place the EV Directory database halfway between the sites
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-310   250-310

NO.24 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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NO.25 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.26 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: A,B,C

Symantec examen   250-310 examen   250-310   250-310 examen

NO.27 An organization has two Enterprise Vault sites. Site 1 contains EVServer01, EVServer02, and
EVServer03 Site 2 contains EVServer04 and EVServer05. Which three USL failover options are possible?
(Select three.)
A. EVServer01 failover to EVServer03
B. EVServer02 failover to EVServer01
C. EVServer02 failover to EVServer04
D. EVServer03 failover to EVServer04
E. EVServer04 failover to EVServer05
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.28 A large enterprise organization requires monitoring. The company will have five Enterprise Vault (EV)
sites and three EV Directories. How many monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which three are core Enterprise Vault services? (Select three.)
A. Archiving Service
B. Placeholder Service
C. Directory Service
D. Storage Service
E. Indexing Service
Answer: C,D,E

Symantec   250-310   250-310   250-310 examen

NO.30 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users. Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be
installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 250-512

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5)

Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

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NO.1 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

Symantec examen   250-512   250-512 examen   250-512

NO.2 An administrator has completed the example document training process, but is having difficulty deciding
whether or not to accept a VML profile. Where can the administrator find information regarding the quality
of each training set at a granular, per-fold level?
A. machinelearning_training_process.log file
B. machinelearning_native_filereader.log file
C. machinelearning_training.log file
D. machinelearning_native_manager.log file
Answer: C

Symantec   250-512   certification 250-512

NO.3 Which two components are required for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution in
addition to the Tablet Prevent and Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. DLP Agent
B. Virtual Private Network Gateway
C. Web Proxy
D. 2010 Exchange Server
E. Mobile Device Management
Answer: B,C

Symantec   certification 250-512   250-512 examen

NO.4 A Network Monitor server has been installed and the networking components configured accordingly.
The server is receiving traffic, but fails to detect incidents. Running Wireshark indicates that the desired
traffic is reaching the detection server. What is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A. The mirrored port is sending corrupted packets.
B. The wrong interface is selected in the configuration.
C. The configuration is set to process GET requests.
D. The communication to the database server is interrupted.
Answer: D

Symantec   250-512 examen   250-512   250-512 examen

NO.5 What is a possible solution when a Network Discover server is unable to scan a remote file server?
A. mount the IPC$ share on the file server
B. verify that the target file server is a Windows 2000 server
C. use the fully qualified name (FQDN) of the server
D. verify that the file server has .NET services running
Answer: C

Symantec examen   250-512   250-512   250-512 examen

NO.6 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

certification Symantec   250-512 examen   250-512 examen   250-512 examen   certification 250-512

NO.7 A user attempts to run Lookup Attributes manually on an incident. On the Incident List page under
Incident Actions, the option for Lookup Attributes is missing. Which section in the Plugins.properties file is
misconfigured?
A. Plugin Execution Chain is undefined.
B. Attribute Lookup parameters is set to "message".
C. Automatic plugin reload is set to false.
D. Automatic Lookup is set to false.
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-512   certification 250-512

NO.8 Which product must run on a physical server?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Monitor
C. Enforce D. Network Prevent
Answer: B

certification Symantec   250-512   250-512   250-512   250-512 examen

NO.9 In which two ways can the default listener port for a detection server be modified? (Select two.)
A. through the Enforce user interface under System > Overview
B. by editing the Communication.properties file on a detection server
C. through the Enforce user interface under Manage > Policies
D. by editing the MonitorController.properties file on a detection server
E. by editing the jaas.config file on a detection server
Answer: A,B

Symantec   250-512   certification 250-512

NO.10 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A. Network Discover
B. Network Protect
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

Symantec   250-512 examen   250-512   250-512

NO.11 What are two possible ways to provide incident match text information? (Select two.)
A. CSV export
B. Email notification
C. Reporting API
D. Syslog notification
E. XML export
Answer: C,E

certification Symantec   certification 250-512   250-512

NO.12 What is one benefit of using FlexResponse for Network Discover?
A. Response rules trigger varying actions depending on which DLP Agent created the incident.
B. An email can be encrypted as it is being transmitted.
C. Displayed incident data can be redacted from the Data Loss Prevention interface automatically.
D. Customizable incident remediation actions can be manually executed.
Answer: D

Symantec   250-512 examen   250-512 examen   certification 250-512

NO.13 Which detection server requires two physical network interface cards?
A. Network Protect
B. Network Discover
C. Endpoint Discover
D. Network Monitor
Answer: B

Symantec   250-512   250-512 examen   certification 250-512

NO.14 Which two should be used to collect log information from Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. enable the VontuSNMP service and set the community strings accordingly
B. use the Log Collection and Configuration tool
C. navigate manually to the log directory of the Enforce server installation
D. .access the Enforce Log Viewer page at https://<VONTU_SRV>/logs?view=true
E. use dbgmonitor from sysinternals to connect to the debug output of the service
Answer: B,C

Symantec   250-512 examen   250-512

NO.15 Which option describes the three-tier installation type for Symantec Data Loss Prevention?
A. Install the database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server all on the same computer.
B. Install the Oracle database and the Enforce Server on the same computer, then install detection
servers on separate computers.
C. Install the Oracle Client (SQL*Plus and Database Utilities) on three detection servers.
D. Install the Oracle database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server on separate computers.
Answer: C

certification Symantec   certification 250-512   250-512   certification 250-512   250-512

NO.16 Which is the correct traffic flow for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution?
A. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Exchange Server > final destination
B. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > final destination
C. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > Enforce Server > final destination
D. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Web proxy > final destination
Answer: B

Symantec   250-512   250-512

NO.17 An approved Endpoint device has been configured and added as an exception to a policy that blocks
the transfer of sensitive data. Data transfers to these approved Endpoint devices are still being blocked.
What should the Data Loss Prevention administrator do to resolve this?
A. disable and enable the policy involved for the changes to take effect
B. edit the exception rule to ensure Match On is set to "Attachments"
C. verify that the proper device ID or class has been entered
D. assign the Endpoint device configuration to all the Endpoint servers
Answer: C

certification Symantec   certification 250-512   certification 250-512   250-512 examen

NO.18 A scanner fails to return results upon completion of the scan process. Which file should be removed to
eliminate previous scan issues?
A. scanner_typeScanner.cfg
B. Clean.exe
C. ScannerControllerLogging.properties
D. logs
Answer: A

Symantec examen   certification 250-512   250-512   250-512 examen

NO.19 What is the function of the Remote Indexer?
A. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles and Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a
remote server
B. to create Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a remote server
C. to create policy templates on a remote server
D. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles on a remote server
Answer: B

Symantec examen   250-512 examen   250-512   250-512   250-512 examen   250-512

NO.20 Which profile contains information to enable the VPN on Demand functionality for the Data Loss
Prevention for Tablets solution.?
A. DLP Agent profile
B. SCEP profile
C. iOS profile
D. VPN client profile
Answer: C

certification Symantec   250-512 examen   250-512 examen   250-512

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SUN 310-019, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 310-019

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified Associate.Java Platform.Se. Exam Version 1.0)

Questions et réponses: 242 Q&As

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NO.1 A Java programmer wants to develop a small application to run on mobile phones. Which Java
edition (or editions) are required to develop the application?
A.only J2SE
B.only J2EE
C.only J2ME
D.J2SE and J2EE
E.J2SE and J2ME
F.J2EE and J2ME
Correct:E

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.2 Click the Exhibit button. Which is an abstract class?
A.Cat
B.Dog
C.Rabbit
D.Mouse
Correct:D

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.3 Which three about JMS are true? (Choose three.)
A.JMS is the acronym for Java Mail Service.
B.JMS supports an event-oriented approach to message reception.
C.JMS supports both synchronous and asynchronous message passing.
D.JMS does NOT depend on MOM (Messaging-Oriented Middleware) products.
E.JMS provides a common way for Java programs to access an enterprise messaging system's
messages.
Correct:B C E

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.4 What is the purpose of JNDI?
A.to parse XML documents
B.to access native code from a Java application
C.to register Java Web Start applications with a web server
D.to access various directory services using a single interface
Correct:D

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.5 Which two are valid representations of operations in UML? (Choose two.)
A.- op(p : P) : P
B.+ int op(int param)
C.* op(param : int) : int
D.+ op(param : int) : int
E.public void op(int param)
Correct:A D

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.6 Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.SQL commands cannot be contained in servlets.
B.SQL is a web services technology used to parse large XML files.
C.SQL technology is used to access JMS queues from within EJB technology.
D.SQL commands can be written in applications that use NO Java technologies.
E.SQL allows you to modify multiple rows in a table with a single command.
Correct:D E

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.7 Which two are characteristics of an RDBMS? (Choose two.)
A.J2EE provides a cross-platform RDBMS.
B.An RDBMS represents data using two-dimensional tables.
C.An RDBMS represents data using three-dimensional tables.
D.Business-tier applications use session beans to represent rows in an RDBMS.
E.Java technologies provide capabilities for connecting a legacy RDBMS to a web application.
Correct:B E

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.8 Click the Exhibit button. Which class correctly implements the interface Flyer?
A.Lark
B.Airplane
C.Penguin
D.Helicopter
Correct:B

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.9 Which is true?
A.All JDBC drivers are pure Java.
B.The JDBC API is included in J2SE.
C.The JDBC API is an extension of the ODBC API.
D.JDBC is used to connect to MOM (Message-Oriented Middleware) products.
Correct:B

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.10 What is the definition of the acronym SQL?
A.Special Query Language
B.System Query Language
C.Special Queue Language
D.System Queue Language
E.Structured Query Language
F.Structured Queue Language
Correct:E

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.11 Click the Exhibit button. Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is valid for a Zippy to have no associated Dippy.
B.It is valid for a Dippy to have no associated Zippy.
C.Every Zippy must be associated with exactly one Dippy.
D.Every Dippy must be associated with exactly one Zippy.
E.Every Dippy must be associated with at least one Zippy.
F.It is valid for a Zippy to be associated with more than one Dippy.
Correct:A E

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.12 Which statement is true?
A.The JMS API is located in the java.jms package.
B.JMS provides interfaces to naming and directory services.
C.JMS enables an application to provide flexible, asynchronous data exchange.
D.JMS enables an application to provide tightly coupled, distributed communication.
Correct:C

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.13 Which is true?
A.A J2SE program can create no more than 10 concurrent threads.
B.The Java threading model provides equal processor time to all threads.
C.All threads created by a given Java program share the same invocation stack.
D.Threading allows GUI applications to perform lengthy calculations and respond to user events at the
same time.
Correct:D

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.14 A Java programmer wants to develop a browser-based multitier application for a large bank.
Which Java edition (or editions) should be used to develop this system?
A.only J2SE
B.only J2EE
C.only J2ME
D.J2SE and J2EE
E.J2SE and J2ME
F.J2EE and J2ME
Correct:D

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.15 Click the Exhibit button. Which is the class name?
A.eat
B.age
C.Dog
D.bark
E.name
Correct:C

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.16 Which statement about threading in Java is false?
A.A thread is a special type of method.
B.The synchronized keyword is used to lock objects.
C.A thread whose execution has completed is no longer runnable.
D.Threads waiting to be executed are generally chosen for execution based on priority.
Correct:A

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.17 Click the Exhibit button. Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.Every Flurb contains a reference to itself.
B.Every Flurb is associated with exactly one Flurb.
C.There can only be one instance of the Flurb class.
D.There must always be an even number of Flurb instances.
E.A Flurb can be associated with itself, but it also could be associated with a different Flurb.
Correct:B E

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.18 Which is true about RMI?
A.RMI is used to create thin web clients.
B.RMI allows objects to be sent from one computer to another.
C.RMI is the Java API used for executing queries on a database.
D.RMI is used to develop applications for wireless mobile devices.
E.RMI is the transport protocol used by web servers and browsers.
Correct:B

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.19 Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.J2EE includes the MIDP API.
B.J2EE application developers need J2SE.
C.J2EE includes servlet APIs and EJB APIs.
D.J2EE applications depend on web servers.
E.J2EE runs on consumer and embedded devices.
Correct:B C

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

NO.20 Click the Exhibit button. Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.The diagram shows a composition relation.
B.The diagram does NOT show a composition relation.
C.A Foo instance has access to the Bar with which it is associated.
D.A Bar instance has access to the Foo with which it is associated.
E.It cannot be determined from the diagram whether instances of Foo and Bar will have access to each
other.
Correct:B D

SUN examen   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019   certification 310-019

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SNIA S10-300 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: S10-300

Nom d'Examen: SNIA (Snia Storage Architect-Assessment,Planning and Design)

Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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NO.1 Your SAN currently has eight server ports and eight disk ports on one 16 port switch. Each server port
requires 80 MB/s of one-way bandwidth, spread out evenly among the storage devices. The customer
would like to add 28 server ports along with 28 disk ports. Each server will evenly distribute its traffic on
each disk. Using 16 port 1 Gb switches, which topology should you select to minimize the number of
switches and ISLs required?
A. star
B. full mesh
C. core-edge
D. point-to-point
Answer: C

certification SNIA   S10-300   S10-300   S10-300

NO.2 What is the primary objective of the storage capacity planning process?
A. To demonstrate the effects of changes in storage service levels.
B. To reach agreement with application representatives and management over the storage requirements.
C. To produce a capacity plan at agreed intervals which fits into the business planning cycle, e.g. the
financial year.
D. To calculate the effects on ILM service levels, array and fabric utilization of the estimated demand over
the period of the planning horizon.
Answer: C

certification SNIA   S10-300 examen   S10-300 examen   S10-300 examen

NO.3 You have been tasked with identifying upgrade options for your networked storage. Which two should
you do? (Choose two.)
A. Only select hardware and software that is SMI-S compliant.
B. Share all received information openly with all vendors involved.
C. Understand needs and requirements as well capabilities of your existing technology.
D. Enlist legal advice or support of your purchasing department when creating RFI, RFP, and RFQs.
Answer: CD

SNIA   S10-300 examen   certification S10-300   S10-300   S10-300 examen

NO.4 A customer is using host based virtualization to mirror critical data between two vendors disk arrays.
Which two scenarios are true? (Choose two)
A. The host can use the same HBA to connect to both arrays
B. The customer can adhere to either vendors SAN design rules
C. The customer must adhere to both vendors SAN design rules
D. The host must use different HBAs with different firmware to connect to each array
Answer: CD

SNIA   certification S10-300   certification S10-300   S10-300 examen

NO.5 A customer has a terabyte database and is required to back up the data daily. The SLA has allotted 6
hours for completion of the backup from 7:00 P.M. until 1:00 A.M. However, the customer has a tape
library with only five SDLT tape devices running at native speeds of 40 GB/hour. Which two should you do
to successfully meet the expected SLA requirements? (Choose two.)
A. interleave data streams
B. enable server-based compression
C. use multiple data streams across multiple devices
D. prioritize the schedule to launch during periods of greatest inactivity
Answer: AC

SNIA   S10-300   S10-300 examen   certification S10-300

NO.6 When planning a NAS solution, which two sub-processes are associated with NAS Service Capacity
Management? (Choose two.)
A. Define future requirements.
B. Manage peak demand for NAS services.
C. Establish IOPS monitoring and exception thresholds.
D. Run reports on the storage and network utilization and IOPS of components.
Answer: BC

SNIA   S10-300   S10-300

NO.7 What is the goal of a SAN designed with no single point of failure?
A. to provide redundant paths to data
B. to have a good data backup system
C. to minimize unexpected loss of data access
D. to have clustered servers so that one is always available
Answer: C

certification SNIA   certification S10-300   S10-300   S10-300

NO.8 A customer has a disk subsystem with eight ports. Each port delivers 200 MB/s. The customer wants a
solution designed which allows access from 32 servers with no single point of failure. Which number of
HBAs and the associated throughput, provide server access to the disk subsystem?
A. 16 HBAs, 75 MB/s
B. 32 HBAs, 90 MB/s
C. 64 HBAs, 25 MB/s
D. 64 HBAs, 50 MB/s
Answer: C

SNIA   S10-300   S10-300   S10-300 examen

NO.9 What are three key advantages of deploying a director-based solution over a mesh of switches?
(Choose three.)
A. lower cost
B. consistent latency
C. improved availability
D. increased hop count
E. ease of management
Answer: BCE

SNIA   certification S10-300   S10-300   S10-300

NO.10 When implementing a high performance NAS solution you must check for which two items? (Choose
two.)
A. Ensure the network is full duplex.
B. Ensure that hosts have 100Mb NICs.
C. Ensure the network is at least 100Mb.
D. Ensure routers are configured for OSPF.
Answer: AC

SNIA   S10-300   S10-300

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Code d'Examen: 090-554

Nom d'Examen: SCO (SCO OPENSERVER(TM) RELEASE 5 NETWORK ADMINISTRATION V30A1)

Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement regarding Ethernet addresses is true?
A. The address is a unique 48-bit value.
B. The address value is configured in the /etc/hosts file.
C. A host discovers its own Ethernet address with the RARP protocol.
D. A host's Ethernet address does not change when it gets a new network interface card.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement about the POP3 protocol is TRUE?
A. The POP3 daemon is started by default by inetd.
B. POP3 allows you to send and receive SCO OpenServer e-mail from a Windows client.
C. With POP3, mail messages are always removed from the server after they are read.
D. POP3 allows you to save e-mail to folders on the SCO OpenServer server.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your company has a Class C network address. Because of geographical considerations, you
want
to set up seven (7) subnets. What is the minimum number of subnet bits that will allow you to
have these seven (7) subnets?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.4 How many octets are reserved for the HOST portion of a Class A IP address (with no subnets)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.5 A Class B network has been subnetted so that it uses an 8-bit subnet address and an 8-bit host
address. Which of these netmask values is a correct choice for this network?
A. 0.0.255.255
B. 0.0.0.255
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which method CANNOT display a GUI interface for configuring the Netscape web servers on
the
SCO OpenServer system called webserver?
A. Enter the SCO OpenServer /usr/internet/ns_httpd/start-admin command
B. Select Netscape Server Admin from SCOadmin
C. From the system webserver, run Netscape Navigator, and go to the URL http://webserver:620
D. From an authorized system on your network, run a web browser, and go to the URL
http://webserver:620
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which file is used to configure outbound Morning Star PPP connections?
A. /usr/lib/mstppp/Autostart
B. /etc/hosts
C. /usr/lib/mstppp/ppphosts
D. /usr/lib/ppp/hosts
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which command, if run on an SCO OpenServer system with an IP address of 192.168.11.11,
would send packets onto the network?
A. ping 127.0.0.1
B. ping localhost
C. ping 192.168.11.11
D. None of these commands would send packets onto the network.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which program or protocol CANNOT be used to allow Windows users to execute SCO
OpenServer applications?
A. TermLite
B. XVision
C. VisionFS
D. TermVision
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement describes the effect of having the following .forward file in the home
directory of
the user cindy on the SCO OpenServer system fiji.xyz.org?
A. mail addressed to alison@guam.xyz.org will be forwarded to cindy@fiji.xyz.org
B. mail addressed to cindy@figi.xyz.org will be forwarded to alison@guam.xyz.org
C. mail addressed to alison@guam.xyz.org will be copied to cindy@fiji.xyz.org
D. mail addressed to cindy@figi.xyz.org will be copied to alison@guam.xyz.org
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 3X0-103

Nom d'Examen: SAIR (Linux Networking (Level 1) )

Questions et réponses: 159 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is FALSE concerning TCP, IP, and UDP? (Select the best answer.)
A. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) supports unicast addressing.
B. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) supports unicast addressing.
C. TCP supports multicasting.
D. UDP supports multicasting.
E. Internet Protocol (IP) supports multicasting.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following can tunneling be used for?
A. It can connect two IPX networks separated by some different network.
B. It can connect two IPv4 networks separated by some different network.
C. It can provide mobile IP support and amateur radio support.
D. It can connect two IPv6 networks separated by some different network.
E. All of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.3 Typical implementations of ping use the _____ to send echo requests to other hosts.
A. Internet Protocol (IP)
B. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
D. Transport Control Protocol (TCP)
Answer: B

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NO.4 A default policy of DENY and ACCEPT may be implemented for a system's ipchains. Which of the
following options will change the default input policy to DENY?
A. ipchains -a input DENY
B. ipchains -a output DENY
C. ipchains -P input DENY
D. ipchains -all input DENY
E. ipchains -input DENY
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is TRUE about the subnet mask?
A. Another name for the subnet mask is the subnet address.
B. In the subnet mask, zeros represent the host ID and ones represent the network ID.
C. In the subnet mask, ones represent the host ID and zeros represent the network ID.
D. The subnet mask is used to aid in name resolution for root name servers.
Answer: B

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NO.6 If a machine has an IP address of 192.168.1.61 and the netmask is 255.255.255.0, what is its subnet
address?
A. 192.0.0.0
B. 192.168.0.0
C. 192.168.1.0
D. 0.0.0.61
Answer: C

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NO.7 Telnet was developed as a continuation of what other communications program developed for
ARPANET? (Select the best answer.)
A. rpc
B. tele
C. login
D. ftp
E. mutt
F. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 For a Class C network, which of the following denotes a valid host address on the 192.168.3.0
network?
A. 192.168.3.255
B. 192.168.3.1
C. 192.168.3.0
D. 192.168.3.256
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following commands will allow you to view the ARP table when the configured name
server is not functioning? (Choose the best answer.)
A. arp -v
B. arp -a
C. arp -n
D. arp -s
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following can you do with the "ping" command? (Choose two.)
A. Determine if a remote host can be contacted.
B. Create and modify (n)x-u NIS network maps.
C. View the MAC address of a given host.
D. Display the route along which an IP packet travels.
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Which of the following is TRUE concerning the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
A. It binds a physical address to a broadcast address.
B. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a logical address.
C. It binds a logical address to an IP address.
D. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a physical address.
Answer: B

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NO.12 You wish to communicate with hosts on your wide-area network. Which of the following is the exact
sequence of commands used to manually configure an Ethernet interface, assuming driver modules
are not loaded?
A. lsmod, insmod, ifconfig
B. insmod, ifconfig, route
C. lsmod, rmmod, insmod, ifconfig
D. ifconfig, route
Answer: B

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NO.13 Because of flow control, UDP will generally lead to network congestion, while TCP helps prevent
congestion.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following are TRUE about buffer size? (Choose two.)
A. A large buffer can lead to wasted system memory.
B. A small buffer can lead to slower data transfer lines.
C. Having a small buffer will free system memory, allocating fewer registers.
D. The larger the buffer, the faster the transfer rate, reducing time arrival jitter.
Answer: AB

SAIR   3X0-103   3X0-103

NO.15 inetd is responsible for waiting for new network requests and authenticating users based on the
contents of the "inetd.conf" file.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which path accurately depicts a three-way handshake between Network X and Network Y for
establishing a TCP connection? (Select the best answer.)
A. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends SYN to X; X sends ACK to Y
B. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends two SYNs to X; X sends ACK to Y
C. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN to X ; X sends ACK to Y
D. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends ACK to X ; X sends ACK to Y
E. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN and ACK to X; X sends ACK to Y
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following host IP addresses are on networks normally reserved for intranets? (Choose
three.)
A. 10.1.220.1
B. 12.1.2.4
C. 172.16.0.30
D. 192.168.0.18
E. 187.10.30.200
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 Assume that a software company has a subnet address 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0. How many
possible hosts can this subnet support, and what is the network address for the subnet?
A. 64; 192.168.1.255
B. 254; 192.168.1.0
C. 255; 192.168.1.0
D. 256; 192.168.1.255
E. 128; 192.168.1.1
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which Resource Record allows the redirecting of mail to another host, assuming the correct
accounts exist?
A. TXT
B. PTR
C. SOA
D. MAIL
E. MX
Answer: E

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NO.20 Which of the following subnet masks is usually associated with a Class A IP address?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.0.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1K0-002

Nom d'Examen: Polycom (CVE-2)

Questions et réponses: 263 Q&As

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NO.1 How is noise measured?
A.Volume
B.Distance
C.Amplitude
D.Impedance
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?
A.G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
C.G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
D.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is the channel used to carry the Audio for H.320 Terminals?
A.Channel 6
B.Channel 4
C.Channel 3
D.Channel 2
E.Channel 1
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate T1?
A.BRTZ-AMI
B.B7S
C.HDB3
D.B8ZS
E.Pulse Stuffing
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following describes the activity for which a RTCP is used?
A.Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video over IP
B.Transport Task of Simple Network Management Protocol
C.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Videoconferencing Hardware
D.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Routers
E.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Gatekeepers
Answer: C

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NO.6 A telephone call over the Public Switched Telephone Network is what type of quality?
A.Narrow band audio
B.Center band audio
C.Wide band audio
D.CD quality audio
Answer: A

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NO.7 Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are
A.connection oriented, point to point connectivity only.
B.unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints.
C.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves limited distances.
D.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves unlimited distances.
E.C and D
F.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following describes audio analog clipping?
A.A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier with excessive gain
applied.
B.An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier without any gain
applied.
C.Audio amplifiers with too high an impedance.
D.A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with excessive AC line voltage.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?
A. Provide phantom power to microphones.
B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.
C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
Answer: DE

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NO.10 Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the H.323 Gatekeeper?
A.Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals
B.Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals
C.Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals
D.Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323 Terminals
Answer: D

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NO.11 Pick the best match; Audio "Critical Distance" is a definition that relates to:
A.Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone
B.Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used
C.Distance between the video display monitor and camera
D.Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways
Answer: B

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NO.12 Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE Interfaces that provide which three signals?
A.Transmit Data
B.Receive Data
C.Request to Send
D.Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)
E.TX Clock and TX Data
F.TX Clock and RX Clock
Answer: BDF

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NO.13 Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?
A.48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set
B.12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones
C.A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre-amplifiers
D.A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power
microphones
Answer: D

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NO.14 E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.
A.200
B.240
C.256
D.300
Answer: C

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NO.15 What are two other names for a Frame Relay Network?
A.RS-232
B.V.35
C.Broadband
D.Virtual Private Network
E.802.3 Medium Access Control Network
Answer: CD

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NO.16 When required, improperly matched impedance will cause problems with__________.
A.Audio signal levels
B.feedback frequency filtering
C.room acoustics
D.all of the above
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?
A.G.711
B.G.722
C.G.729
D.G.728
E.G.722.1
Answer: C

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NO.18 High Definition Video is best described as
A.Video Signal that consists of luminance scan interlaced lines.
B.Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels.
C.Video signal that represents 720 lines of pixels, progressively scanned.
D.Video Signal made up of 40X40 macroblocks pixels.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following are Call Establishment packets? (Select three of the following options.)
A.Receiver Ready
B.Disconnect Request
C.Release Request
D.Setup
E.Connect Acknowledged
F.Receiver Not Ready
G.Alerting
H.Release Complete
Answer: DEG

Polycom   1K0-002   1K0-002   1K0-002

NO.20 The term "Full Motion Video" typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate?
A.Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second
B.Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C.Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D.Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
Answer: D

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