Les meilleures FileMaker FM0-308 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: FM0-308
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 13)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Consider a FileMaker 13 solution with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which
two actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. Create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. Find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. Create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. Display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which two formatting options can be controlled by a layout's theme? (Choose two.)
A. The anchoring / resizing settings for a tab control
B. Conditional formatting for a value in a number field
C. The text color of a button when tapped in FileMaker Go
D. The inner shadow of a portal that is In Focus in Browse mode
E. The background color of a record in List View when a mouse pointer hovers over it
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 A table in a FileMaker 13 solution has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
-Validate data in this field only during data entry -Allow user to override during data entry -Require
not empty -Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported, No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the
error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 13 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & " " & LastName
FirstName and LastName are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. A record is first created
B. Each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
C. A user selects the menu item Records> Relookup Field Contents
D. Any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. The FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 13? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but
not both.
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 Which two FileMaker Pro 13 objects will display data contents even if unrelated to the current
layout's table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed timestamp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the Filter Portal Records feature in FileMaker Pro 13?
A. The portal filter formula must refer to at least one field in the immediately related table.
B. The feature requires one or more additional relationships to be added to the Relationships Graph.
C. The portal filter formula may not refer to any globally stored fields, summary fields, or unstored
calculation fields.
D. There can be one unique filter formula applied for each portal state (Normal State, In Focus,
Hover, or Pressed).
E. Aggregate functions (e.g., Sum, Count) based on the portal's relationship will not be affected by
the portal's filter formula.
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: VDCD510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Advanced Professional - Datacenter DesignExam)
Questions et réponses: 279 Q&As

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NO.1 You are the technical designer for a vSphere platform transformation project. After conducting
SME interviews and using various platform information-gathering methods, you have created a
high-level design document. This document specifies the following: Requirements: R1. The solution
must not have a single point of failure. R2. Production applications must not have an outage of
more than 10 seconds. R3. Data must be based in the UK. R4. There is a 7-year retention policy for
contracts. R5. Applications should support existing and developing workloads for the next 3 years'
growth. Spec of servers: Web 1 vCPU, 2 GB RAM, 100 GB storage App 1 vCPU, 4 GB RAM, 100 Gb
storage DB 2 vCPU, 16 GB RAM, 750 Gb storage At a late stage in the software development life
cycle of a production application developed in- house, an unfortunate issue was identified when the
application was deployed to the production vSphere cluster. The production core stacked switch has
capacity issues, and this is having a serious impact on all applications for which the switch is
providing network services. Within the test system, the application works as intended in the single
test VLAN and with a single-host configuration. Which of the following could be tried to help in this
situation, from a vSphere perspective? (Choose two)
A. Redevelop the application for a virtual platform
B. Place the application into a single-vApp network
C. Add DRS rules to keep network traffic within the same host, where possible
D. Configure network I/O control
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
If you limit the application traffic to a specific dedicated network (that is, a separate VLAN) and
using enforced DRS affinity rules, the application traffic will not traverse the ESXi host's physical
network interfaces. This will ensure that the impact of the application is minimized, while also
ensuring that the application itself is not limited. The application servers already have vCPU settings.
This suggests that the system has already being virtualized in both types of environments. Network
I/O control could be useful in the event of contention, but the role of a designer would be to plan to
prevent contention where possible;
other options would be more beneficial.
In addition, Requirement 5 specifies that the system should work with workloads over the next 3
years. Network I/O control would suggest contention very early in the platform history. Chapter 4,
NetWork - Logical and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
3. Based on the information in the high-level design extract for question 2, which type of data
store would be required?
A. VMFS
B. NFS
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Because fault tolerance would be the only VMware technology that would meet the technical
requirements, VMFS is the only choice here. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
4. A project requirement
A. must be achieved
B. can be set as aspirational but may never be achieved
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A project requirement is a specific deliverable that the business has said must be provided at the
end of a project. It must always be achieved. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
5. The vCenter database is powered off ungracefully, along with a three cluster nodes in a
separate cluster. Will the failed existing ESXi host nodes restart correctly using Auto Deploy?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Auto Deploy enables an untrained IT professional to increase capacity while ensuring
quality and consistency within a cluster. However, there is a dependency on the
vCenter server and Auto Deploy server roles at different times. In this case, the ESXi
hosts have already booted successfully. This means that all subsequent reboots will be
controlled using configuration from the Auto Deploy server, not vCenter. If the
vCenter database is impacted, the ESXi hosts will automatically restore. Even in the
event of no vCenter availability, hosts will use the last-known copy of a distributed
switch or the configured vSphere switch.
Chapter X, Putting it all together
6. A logical diagram shows vendor-specific information.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A logical diagram shows the high-level components of a design or platform.
It may include descriptions such as data flow and entity relationships. However, it does not show
specific vendors (such as Dell or HP).
Chapter 2, Creating the design
7. You are a VMware architect employed to design and build application environments and the
underlying platform for a software development company.
The company is using a "devops" approach and has engaged with you at the beginning of the first
planning meeting/pre-sprint.
The software has yet to be written. However, you have some high-level specifications that are
subject to change at each of the early meetings.
The is more logical for virtual machine sizing.
A. predictive sizing approach based on current software
B. adaptive sizing approach
Answer: B

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Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms:
adaptive and predictive. Both approaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is
the best approach for each project. The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a
major advantage that virtualization technology brings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual
machine to be created initially on a few metrics or high-level requirements (such as a limited budget)
and scaled (that is, grown, not shrunk) through the virtual machine life cycle. In many cases, this
scaling can be performed hot/live without outage/downtime to the running applications. The
predictive approach, on the other hand, requires more planning and research, and you must know
the metrics before deployment. The advantage here is that once the virtual machine has been
deployed, only application maintenance is required. The application requirements are known.
Chapter 5, Design Approaches
8. You are working on a hybrid cloud project, where production applications (yet to be fully
developed) are to be deployed. Which of the following is a project requirement?
A. The production data must be in the UK at all times.
B. The hosting partner provides sufficient resources without overcommitment to support
application load.
C. The hosting provider meets uptime expectations.
D. The development team provides the software on time.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A requirement is a definable and measurable project item. It must be part of the delivery, and its
removal cannot be justified. Chapter 2, Definitions of Key Terms
9. Storage DRS is enabled by default.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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10. Based on the information in the high-level design extract from question 2, what storage
protocol is unsuitable?
A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. FC
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The requirements state that the application uptime requirements would not be met if using vSphere
HA alone. vSphere HA would
invoke a restart of guest virtual machines after at least 10 seconds. VMware fault tolerance would
meet the uptime
requirements; a failover would result in zero downtime of the application. This technology can be
used only with VMFS; therefore, NFS cannot be used in this design. Chapter 4, NetWork - Logical
and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
11. A logical design can contain which of the following? (Choose three)
A. BIOS settings
B. Data flow
C. Key component relationships
D. High-level diagrams
E. Server host names
Answer: B,C,D

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Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other. A
logical diagram is high level in nature and is independent of the hardware used for a solution.
Chapter 2, Presenting the Data Gathered
12. A best practice can change over time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will
have limited best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based
recommendations.
The longer a technology is used in a community, the more
potential success; therefore, best practices can change over time.
Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
13. When designing a storage platform, which of the following should be considered as part of
the overall design?
A. Capacity
B. I/O requirements of the applications to be supported
C. Disk latency tolerance
D. Growth rate
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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Explanation:
A storage platform logical design requires in-depth analysis of factors that can affect applications.In
the case of storage, aspects that relate to the physical layer-such as the amount of usable space
required for services;
the size, number, and speed of disks; and how fast the data is being produced-could have a
substantial impact to the storage platform. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
14. Only a software vendor develops a standard process or configuration.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will have limited
best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based recommendations.
The longer a technology is used in a community, the more potential success; therefore, best
practices may be recommended by non-vendor-related people. It is up to a designer to validate this
information rather than ignore it straightaway. Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
15. Which of the following vSphere cluster technologies would meet the application
requirements specified in the high-level design extract for question 2?
A. FT
B. HA
Answer: A

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Explanation:
vSphere HA would need to wait at least 10 seconds before a restart would be possible. This would
not meet requirements. In the event of a restart, it could be possible to be without the application
feed database for about 15 minutes. VMware FT would enable the service to be provided without
additional redevelopment. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

NO.2 Storage DRS can be enabled and can balance I/O levels based on
A. real-time stats
B. historical stats
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Storage DRS can balance I/O by using storage vMotion. This would be based on historical values for
a period of time. Storage DRS would make decisions based on these figures. If the system were
using realtime stats, the machines could potentially migrate a lot more. This could have an effect on
the latency figures for some systems. The larger historical sampling in storage DRS allows the system
to make a decision with limited risk of impacting I/O-unlike moving a virtual machine over and over
again. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals)
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NO.1 As opposed to a general profile, which two elements are visible only on a job submission in
the candidate file?
A. Prescreening Questions
B. Attachment tab
C. Disqualification Questions
D. Referrals tab
E. History tab
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Identify two configurations that must be selected in the user type to allow hiring managers
access to only their requisitions.
A. View Requisitions -> Only if this user is an owner of the requisitions or a collaborator
B. View Requisitions -> Only if this user is an owner of the requisition, a collaborator or if the
requisitions are associated with coverage area
C. Access "Requisitions- Section
D. View Requisitions -> Without Restriction
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 When configuring a CSW, why is it important to designate a completion status within a step?
A. The Completion Status will allow the candidate to progress to the next step in the CSW.
B. The Completion Status will terminate the candidate selection process.
C. The Completion Status will require that all mandatory actions be completed before a hire can be
completed.
D. The Completion Status indicates that a candidate can move from one step to another even if
some activities are not completed in the step.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Actions available in the Next Action column are Candidate Selection Workflow (CSW) movements
only,either a
Move to the next step in the CSW
Change to the completion status within the current step If the current status is not a completion
status, the action displayed will be a move (change status) tothe first completion status of the
current step. If the current status is a completion status, then the action will be a move to the next
step at the initialstatus. In a one-step CSW (reference workflow), only statuses configured as a
"completion status" willshow up as next steps.

NO.4 What processes can be assigned unique candidate files?
A. Viewing and editing general profiles
B. Creating candidate profiles
C. Viewing and editing job submissions
D. Segmentation of candidate capture types
E. Modifying field-level security
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The candidate file identifier is used to specify which candidate-specific information is presented in
the Candidate column of candidates lists.

NO.5 Your client would like ensure that candidates have the ability to search for jobs in a variety of
ways. They would also like to provide visibility into jobs that candidates are a match for based on
data that has been collected by the system. How would you ensure that this functionality is
available?
A. Activate the Setting Display Personal Jobs List on the Career Portal Page Settings.
B. Activate the Setting Display Personal jobs List on the Career Section Properties.
C. Activate My Jobs Page on the Career Section Portal Page settings.
D. Activate My Jobs Page on the Personal Jobs List on the Career Section Properties.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* If the candidate's submission has expired and the requisition is still posted, the Modify link is
replaced with the Reapply link on the candidate's My Jobs page.
* candidates are entering their profile inthecareer section.

NO.6 When building a Career Section, in order to preview it, which area within the Career
Section would you access?
A. Application Flow Properties
B. Career Section URL
C. Career Section Properties
D. Career Portal Pages
E. Career Section Preview
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Viewing Candidates Matching a Requisition Prerequisite A user type permission grants users access
to this feature. The requisition must be posted on a career section. Steps
1.In the requisition file, select the Posting and Sourcing tab.
2.In the Career Sections section, click Preview Matching Candidates. Result The Posting Requisitions
- Filter Matching Candidates window displays candidates matching the requisition.

NO.7 What two elements does the Configuration profile control within the Recruiting Center?
A. Search Widget
B. Core Navigation Bar
C. Coverage Areas
D. User Types
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
D: A center stage is selected for each configuration profile and a configuration profile is tied to each
user.
A: Users can save a search query if the feature is activated in the user's configuration profile and if
the user type permission has been granted. The fields that can be selected in the Recruiting Center
to customize a search query are set by the system administrator for each configuration profile. If a
user is not linked to a configuration profile or is linked to a configuration profile for which the
system administrator has not selected additional fields, then only the set of default fields are
displayed when customizing a search query in the Recruiting Center.

NO.8 Your client would like to leverage the ACE prescreening to allow the system to automatically
sort and rank candidates who are applying to high volume positions. What type of question will you
want to avoid creating when setting up ACE prescreening for these high volume jobs?
A. Multiple Answers
B. Single Answers
C. Open Text
D. Competencies
E. Disqualification
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 070-347
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Enabling Office 365 Services)
Questions et réponses: 78 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 074-344
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Managing Programs and Projects with Project Server 2013)
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MB2-702
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Deployment)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise El subscription.
The company wants to implement an enterprise document collaboration and social networking
platform that allows users to upload documents from their computers and conduct informal polls.
You need to implement a solution that meets the requirements.
Which solution should you implement?
A. Microsoft SharePoint document libraries
B. Microsoft SharePoint surveys
C. Microsoft Yammer
D. Microsoft SharePoint newsfeeds
E. Microsoft SkyDrive Pro
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company is upgrading its 3,000 client computers to Office 365 ProPlus. The company uses
the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues. The Telemetry Agent is
deployed to all client computers. The telemetry environment is described in the following table.
You need to ensure that telemetry data is collected for more than 20 client computers at a time.
What should you do?
A. Migrate the telemetry database to a computer that runs SQL Server 2008.
B. Use the Registry Editor to trigger the data collection.
C. Use Group Policy to set the MaxConnectionsPerServer setting to 100.
D. Migrate the Telemetry Processor to a computer that runs Windows Server 2012.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company uses Office 365 ProPlus
and has multiple Microsoft SharePointOnline sites.
The company recently started a project that requires employees to collaborate with external users
on the development of a set of documents that are stored in a team site.
You need to ensure that external users can access and edit the documents without affecting the
security of other content.
What should you do?
A. Create a new SharePoint team site and share it by using the Share function and adding the
external users to the Visitors group.
B. Create a new SharePoint team site and share it by using the Share function and adding the
external users to the Contributors group.
C. Share the existing SharePoint team site by using the Share function and adding the external users
to the Visitors group.
D. Share the existing SharePoint team site by using the Share function and adding the
external users to the Contributors group.
Answer: B

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
The company wants to increase the retention age for deleted email items to 90 days.
You need to modify the retention age.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate
command segments to the correct locations. Each segment may be used once, more than once, or
not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scrollto view content.
Answer:

NO.5 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You need to configure Microsoft Lync Online to disable alerts for voicemail and instant messages to
Windows Phones.
What should you do?
A. Use the Set-CsHostedVoiceMailPolicy Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Use the Set-CsPushNotificationConfiguration Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. In the Lync admin center, select the Display presence information only to a user's contacts option.
D. Use the Set-CsUser Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
Many employees work in remote locations with intermittent Internet connectivity. Employees must
be able to access and reply to email messages, and access calendars, even when their devices are
not connected to the Internet.
You need to ensure that employees can access their Microsoft Exchange content offline.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Directory Synchronization tool for offline access.
B. Deploy and configure the AppFabric Caching service.
C. Configure the Microsoft SkyDrive Pro Windows Sync client for offline access.
D. Configure Exchange ActiveSync devices.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your company uses Microsoft Exchange Online. Employees frequently need to change their
primary email addresses.
The messaging operations team has requested a script to simplify the process of changing email
addresses.
The script must perform the following actions:
- Obtain employee information from a. csv file that has a header line of
UserPrincipalName,CurrentPrimaryAddress,NewPrimaryAddress.
- Change employees' primary email addresses to the values in the
NewPrimaryAddress column.
- Retain employees' current email addresses as secondary addresses.
You create the following Windows PowerShell script to read the . csv file. Line numbers are included
for reference only.
You need to complete the script to meet the requirements.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you insert at line 06?
A. Set-Mailbox -Identity $UserPrincipalName -WindowsEmailAddress $NewPrimary
B. Set-Mailbox -Identity $UserPrincipalName -PrimarySmtpAddress $NewPrimary
C. Set-Mailbox -Identity $UserPrincipalName -ExternalEmailAddress $NewPrimary
D. Set-MailUser -Identity $UserPrincipalName -EmailAddresses@{add = "SMTP:" + "$NewPrimary";
remove="SMTP:" + "$OldPrimary"}
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company uses Microsoft Exchange
Online and Microsoft Lync Online.
An employee named User1 has the user name, email address, and Lync address
User1@contoso.com.
The employee requests that you change only his Lync address to User1Sales@contoso.com.
You start a Windows PowerShell session and run the following commands, providing your admin
account credentials when prompted:
You need to complete the process of updating the employee's Lync address without affecting any
other addresses.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run next?
A. Set-MsolUser -UserPrincipalName $ID -ProxyAddresses@{add = "$NewAddress"; remove =
"$OldAddress">
B. Set-Mailbox -Identity $ID -EmailAddresses@{add = "$NewAddress"; remove = "$Old Address"}
C. Set-Mailbox -Identity $ID -WindowsEmailAddress $NewAddress
D. Set-CsUser -Identity $ID -ProxyAddresses@{add = M$NewAddress''; remove="$OldAddress">
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 74-343
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Managing Projects with Microsoft Project 2013)
Questions et réponses: 101 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 074-325
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Administering Office 365 for Small Businesses)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Customization and Configuration)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

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NO.1 You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You have been told to build
multiple project files for a program. You need to have all of your projects start with auto scheduled
tasks by default. What should you do?
A. Under schedule options, set New tasks created to Auto Scheduled for each project.
B. Use the Task Mode field to change the first task to Auto Schedule, then copy down for all of your
tasks.
C. Under schedule options, set New tasks created to Auto Scheduled for all new projects.
D. Highlight all of the tasks in your schedule and select the Auto Schedule button.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your company uses Project Professional 2013. You are setting up a preliminary schedule by
using manually scheduled tasks. You create a task with no duration, start, or finish date, and then
you assign a resource. Later, you enter a duration of three days for that task. You need to let the
resource know how the Work will be affected. What should you say?
A. Work will increase to 24 hours.
B. Work will remain at 0 hours.
C. Work will increase to 16 hours.
D. Work will remain at 8 hours.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your organization uses Project Professional 2013 and records actual hours worked on the
project.
You manage a small e-commerce website implementation project.
One of your testers asks for assistance in completing a critical task, and you find two additional
testing resources that can assist with executing the critical test cases.
The total estimated work for the effort-driven task is 100 hours. The original testing resource,
Resource1, completes 25 hours of work on the task. You need to add Resource2 and Resource3 to
the task and split the remaining hours across all three resources now working on the task. Which
two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Open the Task Form and format it to show Work Details. Enter 25 hours of actual work for
Resource1. Then save the changes.
B. Open the Task Form and format it to show Work Details. Enter 75 hours of remaining work for the
assigned resource. Then save the changes.
C. Assign Resource2 and Resource3 to the task. Then save the changes.
D. Open the Task Form and format it to show Work Details. Enter 33.33 hours of work for each
resource. Then save the changes.
Answer: A, C

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NO.4 You are a project manager for a software development company. You use Project Professional
2013.
You manage an integration project, and you discover that you need to add additional resources to
the integration tasks in order to meet your development complete milestone date.
The project is behind schedule, so you must shorten the duration of the integration development
work.
You identify two additional resources to work on the integration task.
When you add these resources, your task now shows it will complete three days ahead of schedule,
which leaves a contingency window for issues that may arise. In order to shorten the duration of the
task when the resources are added, you need to set the task type before adding the resources.
What should you do?
A. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
B. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
C. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
D. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are a senior project manager, and your organization uses Project Standard 2013. You are
managing a large ERP project with both part-time and full-time resources. The part-time resources
have strict contractual limitations regarding working days and hourly availability. You need to make
sure the tasks for your part-time resources are only scheduled in the calendar during their
agreed-upon working days and hours.
What should you do?
A. Change the part-time resources' tasks to manually scheduled to ensure the dates do not go past
the agreed-upon terms of their contract.
B. Enter the availability start and end dates for each resource and change the percent of units to the
agreed-upon amount in their contract.
C. Enter the availability start and end dates for each resource and change the working time for each
resource to only include days and hours agreed upon in their contract.
D. Change the part-time resources' units to the percentage they are available and set task
constraints to must finish on to ensure the dates do not go past the agreed- upon terms of their
contract.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are managing a project using Project Professional 2013.
Your project schedule is showing task overallocation indicators in the Gantt chart view.
You navigate to the Team Planner view to investigate more details regarding the over allocations.
You discover that the BA1 resource is overallocated and you need to see all assignments with details
for BA1 to understand their current workload before making any assignment changes. What should
you do?
A. Click the BA1 resource and scroll to the end of the project.
B. Click View, check Details, select Resource Form then click on the BA1 resource.
C. Click View, check Details, select Task Form then click on the BA1 resource.
D. Right-click the BA1 resource and select Information.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are a program manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You manage a portfolio of
projects for a large point of sale implementation. All of your project managers have created
individual project schedules. You discover that you have resource constraints since multiple
resources are working on multiple projects. You need visibility into resources across all projects so
that you can most efficiently manage the resources and their availability. What should you do?
A. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each project manager. Open the
individual project and the resource pool. From the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share
Resources, and choose Use Resources.
B. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each Project Manager. Open the
individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
C. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project and
copy and paste it into the Resource Sheet.
D. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project,
select Team Planner, and add the resources.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You work on a construction
project that requires propane as a fuel source for your equipment. The foreman requires that you
enter project costs associated with all work completed on your project. The propane costs $5.00 per
gallon, and the tank holds 500 gallons of propane. Each time the tank is refilled, you must pay a fee
of $20. You need to enter the propane costs into your project schedule prior to filling the propane
tank for the first time. What should you do?
A. Create a material resource with a material label of gallons. Enter $20 in the cost per use and
$5.00 in the standard rate.
B. Create a cost resource, add the resource to a task, and enter $25 in the actual cost.
C. Create a material resource with a material label of gallons. Enter $20 in the standard rate and
$5.00 in the cost per use.
D. Create a cost resource, add the resource to a task, and enter $2520 in the actual cost.
Answer: B

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Nom d'Examen: Lpi (Entry Level Linux Essentials Certificate of Achievement)
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NO.1 What does the exit status 0 indicate about a process?
A. The process ended without any problems.
B. The process was terminated by the user.
C. The process couldn't finish correctly.
D. The process waited for an input but got none.
E. The process finished in time.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which command displays the list of groups to which a user belongs?
A. whoami
B. lsgroup
C. who
D. id
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following filesystems is most commonly used for Linux distributions?
A. HFS+
B. ext4
C. FAT32
D. NTFS
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which command will delete the directory foo with all its content?
A. rmdir -a foo
B. rm -r foo
C. rm -a foo
D. rmdir foo
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement about users and user groups is correct?
A. A group can only have one main user.
B. There can be only one user group on a system.
C. User do not have to belong to a user group.
D. Every user belongs to a least one user group.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What command would you use to get comprehensive documentation about any command in
Linux?
A. help command
B. echo command
C. locate command
D. man command
E. get command
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following services are used for network file systems? (Select TWO correct choices)
A. Rumba
B. Python
C. Samba
D. OpenLDAP
E. NFS
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 Which of the following applications are popular Open Source relational database systems?
(Select TWO correct answers)
A. PostgreSQL
B. NoSQL
C. MySQL
D. DB/ 2
E. MongoDB
Answer: A,C

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Code d'Examen: C-ISR-60
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Retail with SAP ERP 6.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C_TPLM30_66
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following Customizing settings is required to assign a notification to a
maintenance order operation?
A. Assignment of operations to all object list entries active
B. Assignment of order type to notification type
C. Maintain indicator for notification data on order header
D. Create default value profiles for general order data
Answer: A

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NO.2 A maintenance technician replaces a defective counter with a new counter.
Before the users can create a standard measuring document for the new counter, what step(s) must
they perform?
A. Create a new technical object to represent the new measuring point.
B. Create a special measuring document and set the Counter Replacement indicator.
C. Dismantle the old measuring point and create a new measuring point.
D. Create a new measuring point and change the measuring point from which the measurement
reading was transferred.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which task list can have both external and internal number assignment for the task list group
number?
A. Bill of material task list
B. Equipment task list
C. General task list
D. Functional location task list
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following are prerequisites for business completion?(Choose two)
A. The order must have actual costs.
B. The order must be fully settled.
C. The balance of the order must be zero.
D. The order must have planned costs.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 A user has planned an operation with labor costs and material costs; however, the material
cost element is not assigned to a value category.
Where do the material costs appear in the value categories for the order?
A. In the overhead value category
B. In a new, automatically created value category
C. In the unassigned value category
D. In the internal activity value category
Answer: C

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NO.6 A maintenance plan has a completion requirement. The plan contains five maintenance
items that produce five notifications.
Which system status must each notification have before the maintenance call is completed and the
next maintenance call can be generated?
A. REL (Released)
B. ATCO (All Tasks Completed)
C. TECO (Technically Completed)
D. NOCO (Notification Completed)
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following always produces up-to-the-minute costing information for
maintenance orders?
A. A standard analysis from the Plant Maintenance Information System (PMIS)
B. A standard query in SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
C. A maintenance order list
D. A shift report based on shift notes
Answer: C

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NO.8 What information does the value category provide in the maintenance order?
A. The costs details for individual technical objects
B. The costs by work center
C. The material costs by valuation category
D. A summary of costs for multiple cost elements
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C_SRM_72
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Supplier Relationship Management 7.2)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C_HANATEC131
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Associate (Edition 2013) - SAP HANA)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C_TSCM52_66
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which master data is maintained in the SRM system?
A. Business partners
B. Cost centers
C. Purchasing info records
D. Asset master data
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which implementation are product categories replicated without CRM middleware?
A. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on one client using classic scenario
B. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on separate clients using extended classic scenario
C. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on separate clients using classic scenario
D. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on one client using extended classic scenario
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which step allows the ALE distribution model to be visible on the receiver system?
A. Creation of the model
B. Distribution of the model
C. Generation of the partner profile on the SRM server
D. Generation of the partner profile on the ERP system
Answer: B

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NO.4 What controls the transfer of shopping cart follow-on documents from the SRM server to the
backend system?
A. Driver
B. IDoc
C. Dispatcher
D. Spooler
Answer: D

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NO.5 What option in Import Manager is used to map 1 source field to multiple destination fields?
A. Compounding
B. Adding
C. Cloning
D. Renaming
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your customer is implementing SRM 7.2 with ECC 6.0 EhP4. What will be required in their
system landscape to create Central Contracts in SRM?
A. SRM-MDM Catalog
B. SAP NetWeaver PI
C. SAP E-Sourcing
D. SAP CLM (Contract Lifecycle Management)
Answer: B

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7. What do you need to consider when replicating master data from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. Customizing objects must be replicated before business objects.
B. Materials and service masters replicated from ERP use the same product type in SRM.
C. IDocs are used to replicate materials from ERP .
D. Units of Measure (UoM) cannot be replicated from ERP using CRM Middleware.
Answer: A

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8. Which of the following are OCI outbound parameters? (Choose two)
A. Logical system
B. URL
C. Business Partner
D. User name
Answer: B,D

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9. Which attribute within the organizational plan specifies the backend system where the
account assignment data is checked?
A. System alias for accounting systems
B. System alias for logical system
C. System alias
D. System alias for vendor
Answer: A

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10. In order to distribute the workload of purchasers, SRM offers the so called automatic
assignment. In this context, which of the following are true?
A. Automatic assignment can be done for External requirements, Purchase Orders or Contracts.
B. The BADI BBP_PFRP_ASSIGN_BADI is used to define rules.
C. Documents can be assigned to purchasing groups that are themselves assigned to different
purchasing organizations
D. One purchase requisition can have multiple lines, each of which is assigned to a different
purchasing group.
Answer: A,B,D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-250
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 Technical Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 126 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-513
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12)
Questions et réponses: 300 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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6. After a configurable period of time, a suspect virus is released from the Suspect Virus
Quarantine. What happens to it next?
A. An alert is sent to the email administrator.
B. The attachment is removed and the original message is delivered to the recipient.
C. It is rescanned.
D. It is moved to quarantine.
Answer: C

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7. What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A. Dynamic Data Cache
B. Directory Data Service
C. Active Directory
D. Domain Controller Interface (DCInterface)
Answer: B

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8. If recipient validation is configured properly, which SMTP response level is given to messages
that fail recipient validation queries at connect time?
A. 3xx - Service unavailable
B. 4xx - Temporary delivery failure
C. 5xx - Permanent delivery failure
D. 6xx - Rejected validation failure
Answer: C

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9. How should an administrator stop inbound mail using the command line interface (CLI)?
A. use mta-control
B. use mta-stop
C. use mail-control
D. use mail-stop
Answer: A

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10. Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts
via reports?
A. Spam and Unwanted Mail
B. Submissions
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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11. Which two statistics can the administrator view regarding the custom anti-spam rulesets?
(Select two.)
A. the "top-submitters" of missed spam or false positive detections
B. the "top submitters" of messages that are not valid and did not generate a custom rule
C. how many emails have been submitted for custom antispam rules
D. the effectiveness of the custom antispam rulesets compared to Symantec's rulesets
E. the top senders of messages detected by custon antispam rulesets
Answer: A,C

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12. What two actions can allowed end-users do to submit samples to Symantec and have custom
anti-spam rules created? (Select two.)
A. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client
B. flag messages in their web-based SMG quarantine page as being spam and submitting the results
C. forward spam samples to abuse@symantec.com with a subject of "MISSED SPAM"
D. move the message into the included "Junk E-mail" folder available in Outlook
E. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client available for Lotus Domino
Answer: A,B

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13. A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are
recognized by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure the same administrator email address across both control centers
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure both control centers with the same internal email hosts
Answer: A

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14. An organization would like to participate in the Symantec Probe Network without having to
manually create decoy email accounts. The organization wants to make sure that the addresses that
participate in the Symantec Probe Network are currently receiving email. Which directory data
source function should be enabled to help in this situation?
A. recipient validation
B. address resolution
C. SMTP authentication
D. LDAP routing
Answer: A

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15. What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5
appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. DVD-ROM drive listed on hardware compatibility list
C. valid license file
D. machine account created in Active Directory
Answer: A

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NO.2 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5?
A. Store backup on local server
B. Store backup on a remote location using FTP
C. Encrypt local backup
D. Purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

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NO.3 How does Symantec DLP communicate with Symantec Messaging Gateway (SMG) to indicate
what type of incident (if any) is related to a given message?
A. Symantec DLP uses the ICAP protocol to indicate if a message is clean,or if it violated any defined
policies.
B. Symantec DLP will add information into the message that can be interpreted by SMG and then
send it to SMG via SMTP .
C. Symantec DLP will quarantine messages that violate established policies,blocking it from SMG.
D. Symantec DLP will use TLS to send a notification message to the SMG server for any content
violations.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 will be deployed to receive mail directly from the Internet.
In this situation, which option should be selected within the Inbound Mail Filtering - Accepted Hosts
step of the site setup wizard?
A. Enable MX lookup
B. Define a list of domains
C. Specify IP addresses/domains
D. Select all IP addresses
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which directory data source function must be enabled to help prevent a directory harvest
attack?
A. Active Directory connector
B. Dynamic Data Sourcing
C. LDAP authentication
D. Recipient validation
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c Essentials)
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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle VM 3 for x86 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Exadata Database Machine Models X3-2 and X3-8 Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three background processes are mandatory in a database Instance started with a
minimally configured Initialization parameter file?
A. Process Monitor Process (PMON)
B. Flashback Data Archive process (FBDA)
C. Space Management Coordinator process (SMCO)
D. Recoverer process (RECO)
E. Listener Registration process (LREG)
F. Checkpoint process (CKPT)
Answer: A,D,F

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112 /e25789/process.htm#CNCPT9840

NO.2 You are about to apply a patch to a database. Which recommended action is incorrect?
A. You should check the patch conflict with installed patches before applying the patch.
B. You should make sure that you have a good backup of the software, database, and configuration
files.
C. You should install the latest O patch before applying the patch.
D. You should check the fifth digit of the release information to confirm that the Patch Set Update
(PSU) is applied successfully.
E. You should stop all applications running from the software directory that is being patched.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to
create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd). Which two
options would accomplish this?
A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and
execute this on the development COB;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;
B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source
database:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
In the development CDB, you create a databaselink "PRD" that connects to the root of the source
CDB, and start cloning the source PDB:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM salesprd@prd;
D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ' /tmp/salesprd-xml' ;
Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into
the development CDB using:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevUSING' /tmp/salesprd.xml';
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your customer needs server availability that provides uninterrupted access to database
services, handling any unexpected failure of one or more machines hosting the database server, due
to a hardware or software fault. Which product should your customer use?
A. Oracle Data Guard
B. Oracle Streams
C. Oracle Real Application Clusters
D. Oracle GoldenGate
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/availability/maximum-availability-wp-12c1896116.p
df (page 5, Server HA: Oracle Real Application Clusters)

NO.6 Which statement about Storage Snapshot Optimization is correct?
A. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database
without putting the database in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part
of the database.
B. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database must be in
BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
C. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database doesn't
have to be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
D. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database. The
database must be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the
database.
Answer: A

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Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01 /backup.121 /e17630/release_changes.htm#BRADV276 (new
features, third bullet)

NO.7 Which two statements are true about transactions in Oracle Database 12c?
A. Multiple transactions can use the same undo segment.
B. A transaction is assigned an undo segment when it is started.
C. Multiple transactions cannot share the same extent in an undo tablespace.
D. If all the segments in an undo tablespace are used, transactions use system undo segments to
store undo data.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?
A. when multiple databases are to be registered with the listener
B. when DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance
C. when users need to connect the database instance by using the host naming method
D. when the database instance to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server
mode
Answer: C

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