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Code d'Examen: IBMSPSSSTATL1P

Nom d'Examen: SPSS (IBM SPSS Statistics* Certification Level 1 (*formerly PASW Statistics))

Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 When you read data stored in an Excel file via File...Open data, you may need to specify
which options? (Select all that apply)
A. Read variable names from the first row of data
B. Read a Range of cells
C. Specify the Worksheet to read/import
D. Number of Worksheets to read/import
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 When performing CROSSTABS can control variables be added to the procedure?
A. Yes, by placing the variables in the row box.
B. Yes, by placing the variables in the column box.
C. Yes, by placing the variables in the layer box
D. No, control variables cannot be incorporated in a cross tabulation
Answer: C

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NO.3 The assumption of homogeneity of variance is looking for the equivalence or group:
A. Means.
B. Medians
C. Standard Deviations.
D. Ranges
Answer: A

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NO.4 In the Variable View, if you have a series of variables that share the same category coding
scheme, you can enter value labels for one variable, then copy these variables.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which operations are available from the File menu? (Select all that apply)
A. Open and Save data files
B. Print the contents of the active IBM SPSS Statistics window
C. Exit IBM SPSS Statistics
D. Run the FREQUENCIES procedure
Answer: A

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Dernières Cloudera CCA-410 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CCA-410

Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop CDH4)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 How does HDFS Federation help HDFS Scale horizontally?
A. HDFS Federation improves the resiliency of HDFS in the face of network issues by removing the
NameNode as a single-point-of-failure.
B. HDFS Federation allows the Standby NameNode to automatically resume the services of an active
NameNode.
C. HDFS Federation provides cross-data center (non-local) support for HDFS, allowing a cluster
administrator to split the Block Storage outside the local cluster.
D. HDFS Federation reduces the load on any single NameNode by using the multiple, independent
NameNode to manage individual pars of the filesystem namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Choose which best describe a Hadoop cluster's block size storage parameters once you set the
HDFS default block size to 64MB?
A. The block size of files in the cluster can be determined as the block is written.
B. The block size of files in the Cluster will all be multiples of 64MB.
C. The block size of files in the duster will all at least be 64MB.
D. The block size of files in the cluster will all be the exactly 64MB.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three distcp features can you utilize on a Hadoop cluster?
A. Use distcp to copy files only between two clusters or more. You cannot use distcp to copy data
between directories inside the same cluster.
B. Use distcp to copy HBase table files.
C. Use distcp to copy physical blocks from the source to the target destination in your cluster.
D. Use distcp to copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
E. Use distcp to run an internal MapReduce job to copy files.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what's the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: A

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NO.5 How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the JobTracker
receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the NameNode that the DataNode
is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is temporarily
reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available; the client
then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a black
report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
Answer: E,F

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Code d'Examen: PEGACCA

Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (PRPC Certified CPM Architect)

Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following would you configure in order to specify the subset of properties that
can be included within dialog scripts. (Choose One)
A. Interaction driver rule
B. Decision table rule within the dialog class
C. Data source rule
D. Map value rule within the dialog class
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a best practice in CPM dialog management ________? (Choose
One)
A. Dialog rules should be contained in a separate RuleSet from other configuration such as flows
and flow actions
B. Dialog scripts should contain what to say; not what to do
C. Dialog scripts should include references to customer data
D. CSRs should be encouraged to configure personal dialog scripts
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which one of the following is not a valid result type when using the CPM portal search
function? (Choose One)
A. Knowledge content rules
B. Service item work objects/cases
C. External data sources such as accounts or contacts
D. Workbaskets (work queues)
Answer: D

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NO. 9 True or False, Flow-action-based dialog requires that a dialog rule be referenced from the
assignment and flow action within the workflow diagram.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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10. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of suggesting processes to a user during a customer
interaction? (Choose One)
A. Reduced user training time
B. Improved user productivity
C. Improved customer satisfaction
D. None. All of the above are benefits
Answer: D

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NO.4 The text that displays to the user as the task name within a CPM Interaction Driver category
list is
__________. (Choose One)
A. The HeaderTitle field value that is defined within the service item class
B. The short description of the starting workflow for the service item
C. The short description of the Intent Task rule
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which one of the following CANNOT be configured using the CPM Configuration Tools Wizard?
(Choose One)
A. Dialog scripts
B. Suggested processes
C. Coaching tips
D. Association of knowledge content to a user screen
Answer: B

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NO.6 When designing UI components, which of the following is NOT a best practice? (Choose One)
A. Know the standard screen resolution for end user desktops
B. Place required data entry so that the user can tab to complete them
C. Within process screens, use conditional displays
D. Use bold text and many colors to make important fields stand out
E. Avoid non-standard acronyms and abbreviations in captions
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following steps is necessary in order to configure CPM portal search for an
external data source (such as account data from a legacy system)? (Choose One)
A. Enable PRPC work indexing on your system
B. Specify a search retrieval activity on the CPM data source rule
C. Modify the list view rule used for portal search to include your data source
Answer: B

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NO.8 True or False, To maintain backward compatibility with future CPM releases, you should not
override the workflows, flow actions, or sections used within CPM service items/processes.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: M70-101

Nom d'Examen: Magento (Magento Certified Developer Exam)

Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Which table is used for calculating a new increment ID for an order?
A. sales_flat_order_increment
B. eav_entity_store
C. core_increment
D. core_config_data
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are creating a custom CMS module named Achme_Cms. Which one of the following is the correct
XML required to override a controller from the Mage_Cms module in your Achme_Cms module?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the difference in the effect of calling the invoice capture () method versus the invoice pay ()
method?
A. No difference: pay () will always call capture ().
B. pay () will trigger the payment and capture!) will not.
C. capture () will trigger the payment and pay () will not.
D. The difference is determined by the payment method implementation.
Answer: C

Magento   M70-101   M70-101   M70-101   M70-101   M70-101 examen

NO.4 You have a product collection and want to add a filter to get all products whose name starts with Test or
whose price is 0.00.
Which of the following statements would add that OR condition?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which one of the following EAV attribute types may be used for layered navigation in native Magento?
A. varchar
B. enum
C. option
D. union
Answer: C

Magento   M70-101   M70-101

NO.6 Which three of the following conditions are used to protect an admin route via ACL? (Choose three)
A. You have defined an ACL in your module configuration
B. At least one admin role must have permission for that route
C. You have extended the controller from Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
D. You have defined a method _isAllowed which checks the permission
E. The route name must start with admin
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Which of the following options would cause a poll/poll collection to load all entities that have been
posted during April, 2011?
A. $collection->addAttributeToFilter(*date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => 2011-04-30') );
B. $collection->addFieldToFilter('date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
C. $collection->addPostDateFilter('2011-04-01', '2011-04-30');
D. $collection->addFieldToSelect(('date_posted', Array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which method is called on a shipping carrier model to fetch a list of all available shipping methods,
along with the rates associated with them, for a quote address?
A. collectShippingRates()
B. getAllowedMethodsO
C. getShippingRates ()
D. getAvailableRates()
E. collectRates()
Answer: E

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NO.9 For an attribute to be loaded on a catalog/product object, which two of the following conditions must be
satisfied? (Choose two)
A. The eav_attribute table must contain a row defining the attribute's properties and its entity type.
B. The attribute must have a backend model configured in the XML config.
C. The attribute must be part of the attribute set pertaining to the object being loaded.
D. There must be a record of the attribute on the catalog_product_super_atti:ibute table.
E. There must be a column added to the catalog_product_entity table.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which one of the following classes must you extend in order to implement a custom indexer?
A. Mage_Eav_Model_Indexer_Abstract
B. Mage_Core_Model_lndexer_Abstract
C. Mage_Index_Model_Entity_Indexer_Abstract
D. Mage_Index_Model_Indexer_Abstract
Answer: D

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NO.11 The final price for the product on the product view page is__________.
A. taken from the catalog_product_index_price table
B. taken from the catalog_product_index_price_idx table
C. taken from the catalog_product_index_price_f inal_idx table
D. calculated on-the-fly on php-level
E. pre-calculated in the products price attribute
Answer: D

Magento   M70-101   M70-101   M70-101   M70-101

NO.12 What class does an adminhtml grid directly extend.?
A. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget
B. Varien_Data_Grid
C. Varien_Data_Widget
D. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Template
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which one of the following API methods exists in Magento?
A. catalog_category.save
B. catalog_product, items
C. catalog_product_attribute_set.update
D. catalog_product.info
Answer: D

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NO.14 How is the sort order in which total models collect their values specified?
A. The sort order is specified in the admin configuration under Sales > "Checkout Totals Sort Order".
B. The sort order is specified in the system configuration under global/sales/quote/totals/ [total_code] with
<before> and <after> nodes.
C. The sort order is defined by the module loading order as specified by the children of the modules/
[module_name]/depends configuration node.
D. The sort order is specified by the collect method in each total model.
Answer: A

Magento   M70-101 examen   certification M70-101

NO.15 Which two EAV attribute frontend_input types make use of source models? (Choose two)
A. text
B. textarea
C. select
D. multiselect
E. date
F. gallery
Answer: C,D

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Certification ISQI de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen CTAL-TA, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CTAL-TA

Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Analyst)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

CTAL-TA Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/CTAL-TA.html

NO.1 Part 2: "Test Analyst various"
Which of the following is a risk mitigation action?
A. High level of testing independence
B. Identify complex areas of the system
C. Analyse the frequency of use of the functionalities
D. Use risk templates to identify risks
Answer: A

ISQI   certification CTAL-TA   CTAL-TA   CTAL-TA

NO.2 Since the components need to be integrated in an overall software system, interoperability
testing is considered to be of importance. Which of the following techniques is most likely to be
used to support interoperability tests?
A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. Statement testing
C. Vulnerability Scan
D. Defect Taxonomies
Answer: A

ISQI   CTAL-TA   CTAL-TA examen

NO.3 Part 2: "Test Analyst various"
One limitation of pairwise testing is that it
A. is only suitable for testing boundaries
B. may not produce the most commonly used combinations
C. produces all combinations of tests
D. finds defects in clusters of functionality
Answer: B

ISQI   certification CTAL-TA   CTAL-TA   CTAL-TA   CTAL-TA

NO.4 As part of the new strategy a user interface specification has been created to help
development to gain familiarity with the requirements. What kind of review would be most helpful
in this situation? s
A. A walkthrough, because it would help them understand the interface better
B. An inspection, because it would result in a signed off user interface specification to work from
C. A technical review, because it will identify all the problems with the user interface specification
D. A management review, because it sets management criteria for the development
Answer: A

ISQI   certification CTAL-TA   certification CTAL-TA

NO.5 Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification
phase?
A. A requirements review meeting
B. A business analyst eliciting requirements
C. Performing acceptance tests against requirement
D. A test report showing requirements coverage
Answer: A

certification ISQI   CTAL-TA   CTAL-TA examen

NO.6 Which of the following is an important principle for using experienced-based test techniques?
A. Tester skill is a critical factor in assigning test execution tasks
B. Tester skills are less important than ensuring 100% test utilisation
C. Testers should always focus on defect-prevention activities
D. Testers should be evaluated based on the number of defects they find
Answer: A

ISQI   CTAL-TA   CTAL-TA

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Code d'Examen: 8002

Nom d'Examen: PRMIA (PRM Certification - Exam II: Mathematical Foundations of Risk Measurement)

Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is not a sequence?
A. , , , ­ , , o
B. , , , , ­
C. , , , , , , ­
D. 30
Answer: D

PRMIA examen   8002 examen   8002

NO.2 You intend to invest $100 000 for five years. Four different interest payment options are available.
Choose the interest option that yields the highest return over the five year period.
A. a lump-sum payment of $22 500 on maturity (in five years)
B. an annually compounded rate of 4.15%
C. a quarterly-compounded rate of 4.1%
D. a continuously-compounded rate of 4%
Answer: C

PRMIA   certification 8002   certification 8002   8002 examen

NO.3 Find the roots, if they exist in the real numbers, of the quadratic equation
A. 4 and -2
B. -4 and 2
C. 1 and 0
D. No real roots
Answer: D

PRMIA   8002   8002 examen   8002

NO.4 Let a, b and c be real numbers. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The commutativity of multiplication is defined by
B. The existence of negatives is defined by
C. The distributivity of multiplication is defined by
D. The associativity of multiplication is defined by
Answer: C

PRMIA examen   certification 8002   8002

NO.5 Identify the type and common element (that is, common ratio or common difference) of the following
sequence: 6, 12, 24
A. arithmetic sequence, common difference 2
B. arithmetic sequence, common ratio 2
C. geometric sequence, common ratio 2
D. geometric sequence, common ratio 3
Answer: C

certification PRMIA   certification 8002   8002 examen   8002   certification 8002   certification 8002

NO.6 For each of the following functions, indicate whether its graph is concave or convex:
Y = 7x2 + 3x + 9
Y = 6 ln(3x)
Y = exp(-4x)
A. concave, concave, concave
B. concave, convex, convex
C. convex, concave, concave
D. convex, convex, concave
Answer: C

PRMIA   8002   8002 examen

NO.7 What is the 40th term in the following series: 4, 14, 30, 52, ­ ?
A. 240
B. 4598
C. 4840
D. 4960
Answer: C

PRMIA   8002   8002

NO.8 You invest $100 000 for 3 years at a continuously compounded rate of 3%. At the end of 3 years, you
redeem the investment. Taxes of 22% are applied at the time of redemption. What is your approximate
after-tax profit from the investment, rounded to $10?
A. $9420
B. $7350
C. $7230
D. $7100
Answer: B

PRMIA examen   8002 examen   certification 8002   8002 examen

NO.9 Solve the simultaneous linear equations: x + 2y - 2 = 0 and y - 3x = 8
A. x = 1, y = 0.5
B. x = -2, y = 2
C. x = 2, y = 0
D. None of the above
Answer: B

certification PRMIA   8002 examen   certification 8002

NO.10 The sum of the infinite series 1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5+.... equals:
A. 12
B. Infinity
C. 128
D. 20
Answer: B

PRMIA   8002 examen   8002   certification 8002   8002

NO.11 What is the sum of the first 20 terms of this sequence: 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, 65, ­ ?
A. 1 048 574
B. 1 048 595
C. 2 097 170
D. 2 097 172
Answer: C

certification PRMIA   8002   8002   certification 8002

NO.12 The natural logarithm of x is:.?
A. the inverse function of exp(x)
B. log(e)
C. always greater than x, for x>0
D. 46
Answer: A

certification PRMIA   certification 8002   8002   8002

NO.13 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Discrete and continuous compounding produce the same results if the discount rate is positive.
B. Continuous compounding is the better method because it results in higher present values compared to
discrete compounding.
C. Continuous compounding can be thought as making the compounding period infinitesimally small.
D. The constant plays an important role in the mathematical description of continuous compounding.
Answer: C

PRMIA   certification 8002   8002

NO.14 For a quadratic equation, which of the following is FALSE?
A. If the discriminant is negative, there are no real solutions
B. If the discriminant is zero, there is only one solution
C. If the discriminant is negative there are two different real solutions
D. If the discriminant is positive there are two different real solutions
Answer: C

PRMIA   8002 examen   certification 8002   certification 8002   8002

NO.15 What is the simplest form of this expression: log2(165/2)
A. 10
B. 32
C. 5/2 + log2(16)
D. log2 (5/2) + log2(16)
Answer: A

PRMIA   8002   8002   8002   8002

NO.16 Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. Every linear function is also a quadratic function.
B. A function is defined by its domain together with its action.
C. For finite and small domains, the action of a function may be specified by a list.
D. A function is a rule that assigns to every value x at least one value of y.
Answer: D

certification PRMIA   8002   8002   8002   8002

NO.17 When a number is written with a fraction as an exponent, such as , which of the following is the correct
computation?
A. Take the square-root of 75 and raise it to the 5th power
B. Divide 75 by 2, then raise it to the 5th power
C. Multiply 75 by 2.5
D. Square 75, then take the fifth root of it
Answer: A

certification PRMIA   8002   certification 8002   certification 8002

NO.18 Which of the provided answers solves this system of equations?
2y
3x = 3y +x
y2 + x2 = 68
A. x = 1; y = square root of 67
B. x = 2; y = 8
C. x = 2; y = -8
D. x = -2; y = -8
Answer: C

certification PRMIA   8002 examen   certification 8002

NO.19 You invest $2m in a bank savings account with a constant interest rate of 5% p.a. What is the value of
the investment in 2 years time if interest is compounded quarterly?
A. $2,208,972
B. $2,210,342
C. $2.205,000
D. None of them
Answer: A

PRMIA   certification 8002   8002

NO.20 Which of the following properties is exhibited by multiplication, but not by addition?
A. associativity
B. commutativity
C. distributivity
D. invertibility
Answer: C

PRMIA   8002   certification 8002   8002 examen

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Code d'Examen: CSSBB

Nom d'Examen: ASQ (Six Sigma Black Belt Certification - CSSBB)

Questions et réponses: 227 Q&As

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CSSBB Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/CSSBB.html

NO.1 SWOT is an acronym for:
A. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
B. statistics without tables
C. sensory Weibull ordinal tools
D. success wields optimal teams
E. none of the above
Answer: A

certification ASQ   CSSBB examen   CSSBB   CSSBB

NO.2 Causes in a cause and effect diagram often include management, measurement systems, mother
nature and the four standard causes:
A. man, material, methods, machines
B. man, manufacturing, methods, material
C. marketing, methods, material, machines
D. man, material, millennium, machines
E. none of the above
Answer: A

ASQ   certification CSSBB   CSSBB

NO.3 The quality leader responsible for the term Total Quality Management (TQM):
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: D

ASQ   CSSBB   certification CSSBB   CSSBB   CSSBB examen

NO.4 In a series of linked processes and associated feedback loops the product or service flows ________
and the information flows ________.
A. rapidly, slower
B. downstream, upstream
C. evenly, digitally
D. sooner, later
E. to the customer, from the supplier
F. none of the above
Answer: B

ASQ   CSSBB examen   certification CSSBB   CSSBB   certification CSSBB

NO.5 Perform a risk analysis to determine the expected profit or (loss) from a project which has four possible
disjoint outcomes: Outcome A shows a profit of $340,000 and has a probability of 0.25 Outcome B shows
a profit of $120,000 and has a probability of 0.40 Outcome C shows a loss of $40,000 and has a
probability of 0.10 Outcome D shows a profit of $100,000 and has a probability of 0.25 .?
A. $130,000
B. $520,000
C. $154,000
D. ($168,000)
E. none of the above
Answer: C

ASQ   CSSBB examen   CSSBB   CSSBB

NO.6 The leader in the quality movement who recommended that organizations ° e li m i na t e nu m e ri ca l quo t as
for the work force and numerical goals for management. ± :
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: F

ASQ   CSSBB   certification CSSBB   certification CSSBB   CSSBB examen

NO.7 The quality leader most associated with the concept of robustness:
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: E

ASQ examen   CSSBB   CSSBB   certification CSSBB

NO.8 Customer requirement #3 has a ______________ relationship with technical feature #3.
A. strong
B. moderate
C. weak
Answer: B

ASQ   CSSBB   CSSBB examen   CSSBB

NO.9 George is an employee of Black, Inc. John is George ¯ s i n t e r na l cus t o m e r. W h i ch s t a t e m en t i s tr ue?
A. John is employed by Black, Inc.
B. John is employed by another company that supplies material to Black, Inc.
C. John is employed by a company that purchases material from black, Inc.
D. John is employed by another company that has a fiduciary agreement with Black, Inc.
E. John is employed by another company as an internal auditor.
Answer: A

certification ASQ   CSSBB   certification CSSBB   CSSBB examen

NO.10 Customer segmentation refers to:
A. dividing a particular customer into parts that are more easily understood
B. grouping customers by one or more criteria
C. maintaining secure customer listings to minimize communication among them
D. eliminating or °cu tti ng o f ¡± cu st om ers w i th po o r cr e d it histor
Answer: B

ASQ examen   CSSBB   CSSBB   certification CSSBB

NO.11 The word °cha m p i o ¡± in t h e co nt e x t o f S ix Si gm a proj e cts refers to
A. the team that has had the most impact on the bottom line.
B. the person who has coordinated teams most effectively
C. the individual who has outpaced all others in six sigma knowledge
D. none of the above
Answer: D

ASQ   certification CSSBB   certification CSSBB   CSSBB

NO.12 A team has been asked to reduce the cycle time for a process. The team decides to collect baseline
data. It will do this by:
A. seeking ideas for improvement from all stakeholders
B. researching cycle times for similar processes within the organization
C. obtaining accurate cycle times for the process as it currently runs
D. benchmarking similar processes outside the organization
Answer: C

ASQ   certification CSSBB   CSSBB examen   CSSBB examen

NO.13 This is an example of part of a:
A. QFD Matrix
B. Activity Network Diagram
C. Interrelationship Diagram
D. Affinity Diagram
Answer: A

ASQ   CSSBB   CSSBB   CSSBB examen

NO.14 The support for an important quality initiative was lacking in congress until Reagan ¯ s Seretary of
Commerce was killed in a horseback riding accident in 1987. That initiative was:
A. assigning National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) quality oversight duties
B. °consensus o f t he H ous ¡± pr o cl am a t i o n fo r De m i g¡¯ s 14 po i n t s C . nging National Bureau of
Standards to NIST.
D. authorizing the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) to join with the International Standards
Organization (ISO) to promulgate standards.
E. none of the above.
Answer: E

ASQ   CSSBB examen   certification CSSBB   CSSBB

NO.15 A quality leader who did extensive work with Japanese industry is:
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Deming
D. Ohno
E. Taguchi
F. all of the above
G. none of the above
Answer: F

ASQ   CSSBB   CSSBB examen

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Dernières Motorola Solutions MSC-122 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: MSC-122

Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Deploy WLAN Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 113 Q&As

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NO.1 If a Motorola access point induces a 50 mW RF signal onto a 3 dBi antenna, what will be the resulting
EIRP of the transmitted signal?
A. 0 dBm
B. 3 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 50 mW
E. 50 dBm
Answer: C

certification Motorola Solutions   MSC-122   MSC-122   MSC-122   MSC-122

NO.2 You are performing a physical site survey of a new WiNG 5 WLAN deployment. Which of the following is
CORRECT?
A. The Signal to Noise Ratio (SNR) is a critical measurement that needs to be addressed.
B. It is acceptable that you use any RF infrastructure device (Access Point) to perform the site survey test.
C. Using default settings of a site survey application will provide an adequate site survey result.
D. Customer throughput requirements are the only criteria for which need to be surveyed.
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions examen   MSC-122 examen   MSC-122   MSC-122   MSC-122

NO.3 You are designing a WLAN that will support multiple BSS IDs. One of the characteristics you need to
take into consideration is that each BSS transmits a beacon every 100 ms. How many BSSs can be
enabled on the following Motorola access points under WiNG 5: AP7131, AP650, AP6532?
A. 2, one per radio
B. 1 per AP, it is shared between the radios to provide seamless roaming
C. 8, four per radio
D. 16, eight per radio
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions   certification MSC-122   MSC-122   MSC-122

NO.4 You have an access point that requires PoE connected to a switch with a 150 meter 10 BASE-T CAT 5
cable. During testing numerous problems with both data transmission and intermittent power occurs.
Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The cable should be CAT 6
B. There is a duplex mismatch
C. The cable should be 100 BASE-T
D. The cable is too long
Answer: D

certification Motorola Solutions   MSC-122   MSC-122 examen   certification MSC-122   certification MSC-122   MSC-122 examen

NO.5 You are deploying a new system and are creating the RF Domain(s). Which of the following options
would you use to group the APs into the same domain?
A. By VLAN, where all APs are on the same subnet.
B. By site, which can be a location where the group of installed APs can hear each other's beacons.
C. By name, so they can be easily sorted in the tree view of the controller.
D. By deployment phase, so configurations can be accidentally pushed to newly installed APs.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have just conducted a throughput test using iPerf on a WLAN that shows a PHY signaling rate of 54
Mbps, however the average throughput rate shown in iPerf is only 23.5 Mbps. What is the most likely
explanation for this condition?
A. This throughput speed is considered nominal.
B. This throughput rate could indicate a mismatch between Wi-Fi confidentiality algorithms.
C. This throughput rate indicates excessive user activity.
D. This throughput rate indicates excessive out-of-band interference such as nearby cell phone towers.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is NOT considered to be a best practice with respect to the wired
backbone serving the WLAN.?
A. When performing manual configuration of a point-to-point Ethernet link, ensure that both the speed and
the duplex mode settings on the two ports match.
B. When creating a link between Ethernet 10/100BASE-T or 10/100/1000BASE-T ports, enable (or accept
the default of) auto-negotiation on both ports.
C. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, enable (or accept the default of)
auto-negotiation.
D. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, disable auto-negotiation on both ports.
Answer: D

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NO.8 During a recent throughput analysis test of your 802.11g network, you discovered that performance is
poor in comparison to previous baselines. You discover that this is the result of 802.11b stations becoming
associated with your access point. What option could you implement to eliminate 802.lib clients from
attaching to your network?
A. Implement protection mechanisms
B. Make 24 mbps a required data rate
C. Implement RTS/CTS at the access point
D. Change the channel used for the network
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following APs does not support adaptive mode?
A. AP7131
B. AP6532
C. AP650
D. AP6521
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following statements regarding the configuration of Motorola RFS controllers is TRUE?
A. ADSP can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
B. LANPlanner can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
C. RFMS can be used to perform predictive site surveys using an RFS controller
D. WiNG 5 can be used to perform manual site surveys using an RFs controller
E. CLI can be used to perform both manual and predictive site surveys using an RFS controller.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Your customer has requested that during the upcoming 802.llg to 802.11n upgrade deployment you
enable 40 MHz channels on 1, 6, and 11 of the 2.4 GHz ISM band. You respond by saying that there is not
enough spectrum to allow 40 MHz channels centered on 1, 6, and 11. How wide are standard 802.11g
(OFDM) channels?
A. 20 MHz
B. 83.5 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 11 MHz
E. 22 MHz
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is the primary method of collision avoidance in an 802.11 CSMA/CA WLAN?
A. Backoff Timer
B. Carrier Sense
C. Contention Window
D. Enhanced Distributed Channel Access (EDCA)
E. Distributed Coordination Function Interframe Spaces (DIFS)
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are deploying a new WLAN within the WiNG 5 architecture. Which of the following is the only
UNSUPPORTED Motorola access point/port?
A. AP-300
B. AP-650
C. AP-5131
D. AP-7131
Answer: C

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NO.14 Your customer has requested that you configure unique VLANs for voice, normal user data with
802.1X security, guest access, and management traffic. Which of the following VLAN modes can support
this request?
A. Native Mode
B. Access Mode
C. Trunk Mode
D. Aggregation Mode
E. Encapsulation Mode
Answer: C

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NO.15 You have configured a Motorola RFS controller using WiNG 5 and have attempted to adopt a group of
APs using L2 adoption but the adoption is not successful. You have confirmed the following:
-All of the APs have an Ethernet connection to the same LAN segment as the controller -Spanning Tree
Protocol (STP) has been disabled on the APs next hop switch port -Intermediate firewalls are not blocking
EtherType 0x8783
Given this scenario, which of the following is the most likely cause of the unsuccessful AP adoption?
A. DHCP option 192 has not been defined on the DHCP server
B. A local VLAN has been configured on both the controller and the APs
C. The APs GE ports have been configured for an S02.1q-tagged native VLAN
D. The APs GE ports have been configured for an 802.1q-untagged native VLAN
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: STI-884

Nom d'Examen: Simens (SOCA Sales Small & Medium Businesses (SMB))

Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 Which options apply to the Siemens Open Communications strategy? (Choose two)
A. It helps deliver solutions to only small sized businesses.
B. It helps Siemens realize the LifeWorks vision.
C. It provides customers with business value by impacting their growth.
D. It is Siemens' core company strategy and positioning.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which best describes the IT-based communications principle of Open Communications?
A. IT-based open Communications enables integration of mobile communications and location
independence across networks.
B. IT-based open Communications uses the latest technology to provide innovative business continuity
services to your customer.
C. IT-based open Communications can be implemented in various forms such as Managed and Hosted
Services.
D. IT-based open Communications means a strong commitment to SIP and LINUX, a clear focus on
IT-oriented deployments.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What makes the Siemens Unified Communications solutions unique in the marketplace?
A. They are proven and mature offerings that operate with your customer's existing IT environment and
provide easy growth and expansion.
B. They leverage existing applications such as Microsoft Outlook.
C. They offer cost savings and productivity enhancing benefits.
D. They enable employees to remain connected when they are out of office.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why is it critical for customers to have a cost-effective solution that meets the basic needs of small and
medium sized businesses?
A. They want something that works with their existing infrastructure, which is easy to set up and manage.
They typically don t have the money to experiment on new technologies.
B. They need support to help make communications services easier to understand and to promote
internally.
C. A little more than half of small businesses now run a local area network, with 76% of these firms using
a server-based network.
D. They want something that improves business growth by 30% annually.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What does "Open" in Open Communications signify?
A. Siemens provides Software Development Kits (SDKs) and Application Program Interfaces (APIs) that
allow better and easier voice integration.
B. Siemens Unified Communications solutions increase the operational costs due to complex
technologies.
C. Siemens Unified Communications solutions require customers to buy the entire solution instead of the
relevant solution elements.
D. Siemens Open Communications strategy is based on the Open Service Delivery principle.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which best describes the Optimize customers under OpenPath?
A. Customers who will make specific investments in upgrading some elements if the business case is
right.
B. Customers who want to replace the older systems with new unified communication solutions.
C. Customers who want to make operational cost savings with minimal change to their current
infrastructure and systems.
D. Customers who want to focus around the implementation of new applications and solutions in their own
right.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which best describes Siemens' most recent application specifically tailored to the needs of the small
and medium sized businesses.?
A. OpenScape
B. Unified Communciations
C. OpenScape Office
D. LifeWorks
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which business objectives does the Siemens approach to Open Communications impact while
providing business value to customers? (Choose two)
A. Promoting employee competition.
B. Reducing operation costs.
C. Improving asset efficiency.
D. Enhancing business knowledge.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Which factor affects small and medium sized businesses' ability to make informed decisions about
technology?
A. Customer segmentation.
B. Lack of dedicated IT staff.
C. Unclear business strategy.
D. Lack of market knowledge.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which is an indicator for opportunity if your prospect is a Value Chief?
A. The prospect has a PC network upgrade planned for implementing a new application.
B. The prospect is moving to a new, more cost-effective office space.
C. The prospect is investigating productivity features to make the business more efficient.
D. The prospect is interested in IP technology but is uneasy about a large initial investment.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is an important part of the sales qualification process?
A. Ensuring faster decision making for outstanding customer service.
B. Predicting that the size of the small and medium sized business market for communications is stable.
C. Understanding the psychological drivers of the business owner or manager.
D. Enabling employees to remain connected whilst out of office.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which best describes Siemens' model for migration to Unified Communications?
A. OpenPath
B. LifeWorks
C. Open Service Delivery
D. HiPath 3000
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which describe the motivations of a Transform customer? (Choose two)
A. Business processes are specific solution led
B. Businessprocesses are architecture led
C. Lowest TCO, CapEx, and best CEBP
D. Solution is ROI based
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 Which best describes the OpenPath model?
A. How your customers can move their communications environment from where it is today to where they
need it to be.
B. How Siemens' solutions can affect the operating costs and sales of your customers.
C. How to decide which products fit your customers' profile.
D. How to maximize the lifetime values of solutions and services that you provide to your customers.
Answer: A

Simens examen   STI-884   STI-884   STI-884

NO.15 Which is an indicator for opportunity if your prospect is driven by growth through productivity? (Choose
two)
A. The prospect is evaluating phone system options due to business changes or expansions.
B. The prospect is investigating productivity features to make the business more efficient.
C. The prospect needs to install a new phone system to provide for the required capacity of the office
space.
D. The phone system of the prospect is outdated and cannot keep up with the growing business
demands.
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 Which best describes Open Service Delivery in Open Communications?
A. Providing innovative business continuity service to your customer.
B. Implementing Open Communications in a wide variety of forms, including Managed and Hosted
Services.
C. Replacing voice and data infrastructure with new Unified Communications solutions.
D. Enabling integration of mobile communication and location independence across networks.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which are the key reasons that there is a huge shift in the type of technology that small and medium
sized businesses are adopting and are spending money to change their telephone systems? (Choose
three)
A. Personal Mobility.
B. Corporate Excellence.
C. Cost Control.
D. Productivity.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.18 How do Siemens Open Communications solutions reduce operating costs? (Choose two)
A. By increasing the number of employees.
B. By simplifying infrastructure and costs.
C. By ensuring that employees work from office.
D. By increasing the efficiency of sales teams.
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 Which best represents Siemens' vision for the unification of the various types of communications in
enterprises?
A. LifeWorks
B. Open Communications
C. OpenPath
D. Unified Communications
Answer: A

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NO.20 How do Siemens Unified Communications solutions facilitate easy growth and expansion for your
customers?
A. Customers can maximize the lifetime value of the solutions and services that you provide them.
B. Customers need to replace their existing applications with new applications.
C. Customers can implement solutions that need a dedicated team to maintain and update frequently.
D. Customers can buy the capabilities that they need now and activate new capabilities with "license
keys" when they are ready in the future.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: S90-19A

Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Security)

Questions et réponses: 83 Q&As

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NO.1 ___________ is an industry standard that describes mechanisms for issuing, validating, renewing and
cancelling security tokens.
A. WS-Security
B. WS-Trust
C. WS-SecureConversation
D. WS-SecurityPolicy
Answer: B

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NO.2 Security policies defined using WS-SecurityPolicy can be used to convey which of the following
requirements to a service consumer?
A. Whether transport-layer or message-layer security needs to be used
B. The encryption type that needs to be used for transport-layer security
C. The algorithms that need to be used for cryptographic operations
D. The type of security token that must be used
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Service A's logic has been implemented using managed code. An attacker sends an XML bomb to
Service A. As a result, Service A's memory consumption started increasing at an alarming rate and then
decreased back to normal. The service was not affected by this attack and quickly recovered. Which of
the following attacks were potentially avoided?
A. XML parser attack
B. Buffer overrun attack
C. Insufficient authorization attack
D. Denial of service
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which of the following types of attack always affect the availability of a service?
A. Exception generation attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. XPath injection attack
D. None of the above
Answer: D

SOA Certified Professional   S90-19A   S90-19A

NO.5 Service A has recently been the victim of XPath injection attacks. Messages sent between Service A
and Service C have traditionally been protected via transport-layer security. A redesign of the service
composition architecture introduces Service B, which is positioned as an intermediary service between
Service A and Service C. The Message Screening pattern was applied to the design of Service B. As part
of the new service composition architecture, transport-layer security is replaced with message-layer
security for all services, but Service A and Service C continue to share the same encryption key. After the
new service composition goes live, Service A continues to be subjected to XPath injection attacks. What
is the reason for this?
A. The message screening logic can only work for Service C. Therefore, Service A is not protected.
B. Because message-layer security is being used, it is not possible for the message screening logic in
Service B to inspect messages without having the encryption key that is shared by Service A and Service
C.
C. XPath injection attacks are not prevented by message screening logic or message-layer security.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How can the use of pre-compiled XPath expressions help avoid attacks?
A. Pre-compiled XPath expressions execute faster and therefore help avoid denial of service attacks.
B. Pre-compiled XPath expressions reduce the chance of missing escape characters, which helps avoid
XPath injection attacks
C. Pre-compiled XPath expressions contain no white space, which helps avoid buffer overrun attacks
D. They can't because XPath expressions cannot be pre-compiled
Answer: B

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NO.7 When designing XML schemas to avoid data-centric threats, which of the following are valid
considerations?
A. The maxOccurs attribute needs to be specified using a restrictive value.
B. The <xsd:any> element needs to be avoided.
C. The <xsd:restriction> element can be used to create more restrictive user-defined simple types.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 The Service Perimeter Guard pattern has been applied to help avoid denial of service attacks for a
service inventory. As a result, services within the service inventory are only accessible via a perimeter
service However, denial of service attacks continue to succeed and services within the service inventory
become unavailable to external service consumers. What is the likely cause of this?
A. The application of the Service Perimeter Guard pattern needs to be combined with the application of
the Message Screening pattern in order to mitigate denial of service attacks.
B. The perimeter service itself is the victim of denial of service attacks. As a result, none of the services
inside the service inventory can be accessed by external service consumers.
C. The Trusted Subsystem pattern should have been applied so that each service has a dedicated trusted
subsystem.
D. The Service Perimeter Guard pattern does not help avoid denial of service attacks.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Service A needs to be designed so that it supports message integrity and so that only part of the
messages exchanged by the service are encrypted. You are asked to create the security policy for this
service. What type of policy assertions should you use?
A. Token assertions
B. Protection assertions
C. Security binding assertions
D. Service A's security requirements cannot be expressed in a policy
Answer: B

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NO.10 The Trusted Subsystem pattern is applied to a service that provides access to a database. Select the
answer that best explains why this service is still at risk of being subjected to an insufficient authorization
attack.
A. Attackers can steal confidential data by monitoring the network traffic that occurs between the service
and the database.
B. Because the Service Perimeter Guard pattern was also not applied, the database is not protected by a
firewall.
C. If an attacker gains access to the security credentials used by the service to access the database, the
attacker can access the database directly.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.11 The use of session keys and symmetric cryptography results in:
A. Increased performance degradation
B. Increased reliability degradation
C. Reduced message sizes
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.12 The use of XML schemas for data validation helps avoid several types of data-centric threats.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following can directly contribute to making a service composition architecture more
vulnerable to attacks?
A. Reliance on intermediaries
B. Reliance on transport-layer security
C. Reliance on open networks
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.14 The application of the Service Loose Coupling principle does not relate to the use of security policies
as part of service contracts.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-19A examen   S90-19A

NO.15 An alternative to using a ___________ is to use a __________.
A. Public key, private key
B. Digital signature, symmetric key
C. Public key, key agreement security session
D. Digital signature, asymmetric key
Answer: C

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